A few years ago an extensive new study of the early Christian author Papias was published by Stephen Carlson titled Papias of Hierapolis Exposition of Dominical Oracles: The Fragments, Testimonia, and Reception of a Second-Century Commentator (Oxford University Press, 2021). I finally got ahold of a copy and can here attest that it is refreshingly good. I don’t agree with Carlson on every point but he is competent and cautious, and whether you agree with him or not, his scholarship is valuable to the point of essential. Which is what all good scholarship should strive to be. Here I will highlight some of the most noteworthy items in this monograph as relates to questions I explore in my work. But there is a lot more to this book. It is erudite and thorough. Anyone interested in any aspect of Papias and his surviving fragments (including the mistaken ones!) will need to consult it.
Dating Papias
One question everyone wants answered is when Papias lived and wrote, which we have no clear data on. At most we can say it was before Irenaeus (c. 180 AD) as he quotes and refers to him, but how long before no source really says. For example, Irenaeus implies Papias wrote before the death of Polycarp, which would put his publication at least before 155 AD. But we don’t have that information from Papias himself, and Christians were notoriously unreliable in relating the history of their own movement (see How To Fabricate History and the works of Vinzent at al.).
Claims that Papias knew the Apostles (and John in particular) don’t hold up to scrutiny—they appear to be urban legends, the product of telephone games and pious enthusiasms (see Did Polycarp Meet John the Apostle?). It is often assumed he wrote after Mark and Matthew but before Luke and John, but that may be an erroneous inference—he might in fact have been commenting on the entire fourfold Gospel of the Anti-Marcionite edition of the New Testament (see my discussion of Papias in relation to Q Theory and my discussion of the dating of that edition in Three Things to Know about New Testament Manuscripts), which would place his work after 144 AD (if that is when the Marcionite edition came out, and not when Marcion was expelled from the church) or after 138 AD (if that is closer to the time his edition came out), and not the “95–110” AD that over-enthusiastic Christians want his floruit to be, or even the “around 130 AD” that most scholars settle on out of mere compromise.
Carlson notes that “Irenaeus commended Papias as a hearer of John and a comrade of Polycarp” (p. 1) but “the identity of this John has been long disputed” ever since Eusebius cited, as evidence against it being the Apostle, that Papias had denied having met any Apostle in the preface to his five-volume Exposition of Dominical Oracles (after having realized he was too gullible in his trusting Irenaeus on this before: pp. 34–35; on the translation of the title of Papias’s book, see Carlson, pp. 35–40). Eusebius then says Papias met people who “knew” the Apostles, but even that is ambiguous. The English of the ANF edition translates this as “their friends” but that’s not in the Greek. The Greek says those “of knowledge,” which can mean those who “had knowledge of” the Apostles or even just they themselves “were well known” people. The phrase para tôn ekeinois gnôrimôn is ambiguous as to the sense of gnôrimôn, which can mean acquaintance or pupil (though usually only when the teacher is stated in the genitive, and here it is not). But it can also mean simply “those who were famous,” i.e. well-known people, those of renown or good reputation, or those “who knew” about the Apostles (those “in the know,” as in acquainted with their legends, not necessarily with the Apostles themselves).
Eusebius might have been intentionally ambiguous about this, or indeed even intending to preserve the ambiguity of his source, for want of any clarity on the point himself. Because we can see that Eusebius quotes Papias here, who is just as ambiguous. Translating directly and faithfully from the Greek of Papias, he wrote “whenever someone came who closely followed the elders” (εἰ δέ που καὶ παρηκολουθηκώς τις τοῖς πρεσβυτέροις ἔλθοι) “I asked about the elders’ stories” (τοὺς τῶν πρεσnυτέρων ἀνέκρινον λόγους), not “I asked the elders for their stories,” meaning (as Eusebius observed) Papias never met any of these “elders” (much less “the Apostle John”), but rather, he sought hearsay about what they said. The ANF translation renders this as “a follower of the elders,” but scholars have long noted the Greek is ambiguous in what sense they “followed” them.
The word parêkolouthêkôs is the same as in Luke 1:3, where it does not mean direct acquaintance but acquaintance with traditions. I think it is notable that Papias chose to use this word here, not “student” or “acquaintance” or “hearer” or any other word that would clearly have signaled these people he interrogated actually met the elders. Rather, he chose a word that means simply “attended closely, understood, traced accurately,” which could simply mean they did what he did: hunted down legends and tales of the elders, which they are (he believes) faithfully passing on to him. Papias is thus describing not just hearsay, but double or triple hearsay. So we can’t even date him by these remarks. We can’t tell what his chronological distance was from the original Apostles. And notice the telephone game already happening: Papias said parêkolouthêkôs and Eusebius changed that in his own retelling to gnôrimôn, a word still ambiguous but sounding more like acquaintance than the word Papias chose. The legend is growing right before our eyes.
Indeed, after distinguishing John the Apostle from the second century John the Elder, I think Eusebius mistakenly infers Papias said he at least met the latter. But his own quotation of Papias does not say that, and Eusebius himself seems to be aware that he is pushing his evidence too far on the point, claiming Papias “says that he was himself a hearer of Aristion and the presbyter John,” even though he did not say that and in fact said he only talked to people who knew things about them. Hence Eusebius follows that assertion with the qualifying remark, “At least he mentions them frequently by name, and gives their traditions in his writings” so “let it be said that these things are not useless to us,” i.e. Eusebius admits Papias never actually said he met Aristion or John the Elder, but is just assuming he did because he preserves their traditions by name and was (presumably) their contemporary. And we cannot discern whether these guys being “disciples of the disciples” is true, or a lie they told to Papias, or an embellishment Papias spun into existence on his own (the way Irenaeus did). So even this remains a tenuous thread to date by.
That they were, nevertheless, contemporaries of Papias would be implied by Papias referring to them in the present tense, rather than the past tense that he refers to the Apostles and their generation by, suggesting Aristion and the Elder were still around when Papias was collecting his information—or that Papias believed they were. And though the extant text has Papias call these two men “Disciples of the Lord,” he must have been using that term very loosely, as even Eusebius admits neither can have been actual disciples but were from a later generation. I think more likely is what Carlson notes to be possible: that the text may have become corrupted in or before the 4th century. Carlson cites as possibilities (pp. 140–41; cf. p. 167) that Papias originally wrote “who were their disciples,” i.e. of the Apostles previously listed (the word kuriou spuriously replacing toutôn) or “who were disciples of the disciples of the Lord” (the repetition of “disciple” being dropped), both common kinds of transmission error.
So even Eusebius can adduce no evidence Papias knew even those guys, much less the Apostles—just like Irenaeus falsely claims for Polycarp (see my discussion in Why You Should Not Believe the Apostle John Wrote the Last Gospel). Irenaeus is also Eusebius’s only source for the false legend that Papias also sat at the feet of John the Apostle—so you might see a trend here. Ireneaus is prone to telephoning such legends into existence. Likewise when Eusebius says Papias related (not heard) a miraculous story “from the daughters of Philip” again the Greek is vague as to whether this means directly from them, or “from them” as in a tradition said to originate with them. And here we are not shown the actual words of Papias, either, just what Eusebius is interpreting him to have said.
That all appears to be, in fact, a second century legend (Eusebius also finds the tale of these daughters in a late second century episcopal letter full of pious legends). Eusebius believes Papias lived or was born in the time of these legendary daughters (ὡς δὲ κατὰ τοὺς αὐτοὺς ὁ Παπίας γενόμενος), but Eusebius actually thus avoids saying he met them (merely claiming instead that they were contemporaries) and does not actually say Papias himself said they were alive then. And again, we don’t hear any of this from Papias. Similar telephone-gaming occurs in Jerome, who garbles all of this and claims “Irenaeus” was “a man of apostolic times” (Irenaeus was nowhere near apostolic times) who wrote in the late first century (he wrote in the late second century) and was “a disciple of Papias” (in fact, Irenaeus said he was once a student of Polycarp, whom he claims once knew Papias), illustrating how easy it was to compress stages of historical time (pp. 159–60) and suddenly, honest to God, Abraham Lincoln is having a beer with Albert Einstein.
Nevertheless, despite admitting that the claim Papias met the Apostle John is dubious, Carlson still leans almost entirely on that claim to conclude Papias most likely dates from the time of Trajan (98–117 AD). This is even a non sequitur from his own premise, since the sources say Papias became famous after this (p. 137, 149, 173), and so Papias’s book must post-date Trajan, even if this testimony to their timing were believable. And as I just explained, it is not so much. The advantage of a scholar being wrong yet honest about it is that a reader can at once see from what they themselves say that their inference is invalid, from their own stated evidence. That’s the difference between merely being wrong, and being incompetent or an apologist, where the faulty inference gets hidden by misstating or exaggerating the reliability of its premises. Carlson has no good argument for dating Papias so early. And we can tell that from his own presentation of the data. This does mean you need to read works like this critically and not gullibly. But that’s true of every work, of any quality. Here at least he is being straight with you.
A far weaker reason Carlson gives for this conclusion is that we have no mention of Papias discussing the Gospel of John, “therefore” he must predate it (though dating John is even more vexing). But as I’ve noted before, we don’t actually know this. Papias may in fact have originated or related many of the legends Eusebius tells for the authors of all the Gospels, including the Gospel of John. Eusebius tells these stories without attribution, and only happens to quote Papias on Mark and Matthew at the end as an afterthought to add to what he has already said. So we actually can’t tell whether Papias did not also say things about Luke and John. He just happened to be quoted on Mark and Matthew.
It is impossible to prove but also worth noting that the Aristion that Papias got things from is also a leading suspect in authoring the Long Ending of Mark, as originally part of a now-lost commentary on the fourfold Gospel (there is a question of multiple similarly-named persons around the same time: see my discussion in Hitler Homer Bible Christ), which would place Papias around the same time as the fourfold Gospel, and thus with knowledge of it. Indeed, he may have his stories about the Gospel authors, whether directly or indirectly, from that commentary of Aristion, and Eusebius might simply not be attributing those stories because he found them repeated in multiple sources, and only quotes or attributes something when it is unusual, or found in only one author, or the precise wording is important. Carlson frequently admits that material in chapters of Eusebius and Irenaeus could be from Papias, merely unattributed. And we simply can’t rule that out here.
In any case, since we do not have the complete text of Papias and no one says he didn’t also discuss the Gospels of Luke and John, we actually do not have any secure premise that he didn’t. Moreover, even if he didn’t, that does not mean it wasn’t circulating by then (there is no reason he would omnisciently know every book around or even care to comment on them all or even had a story to relate for every one), so we cannot securely date him by such a silence anyway—even if we could prove he was silent on this. And we can’t. So there really is just no way to get an early date for Papias. We can’t really tell when he wrote, other than that it was sometime in the first half of the second century (a common vexation in this field).
Relying on Papias
Carlson is not entirely gullible. When he discusses the only mention of Papias by Irenaeus—where Irenaeus desperately needs to create an authority for his insistence that Jesus really did say there would be grape clusters as big as houses in the new world—Carlson admits “scholars today are rightly skeptical of this attribution to Jesus” (p. 19). In other words, someone is lying. Was it the Apostle John, to whom Irenaeus credits the report? Was it the “elders who saw” John say it, to whom Irenaeus credits its transmission? Or did none of this happen, and someone lied even about being the Apostle John or an elder having heard him? Or is Irenaeus over-enthusiastically “assuming” some source actually heard the Apostle say this?
Or indeed does Irenaeus really mean (regardless of what he explicitly says) that this “John” said it in a work of fan fiction (like some lost Gospel of Acts of John)? Could this really be from, say, a lost section of the Egerton redaction of the Gospel of John? Our redaction of John claims plural authors, likewise in the supporting forgery of 1 John, and only legend had it that they were citing the testimony of this “John.” But that’s not actually stated in the text. So is Irenaeus also simply assuming some now-lost Gospel or Acts of John was written by elders relying on the Apostle John and therefore “John” said all this? We’ve seen how these kinds of telephone games were a fashionable problem in early Christian storytelling.
We’ve seen Irenaeus fabricate this claim for Polycarp and Papias, so we have no reason to believe any of his sources “actually saw John” (at all, much less as saying this weird thing about brobdingnagian grapes). Irenaeus is both a wantonly gullible author and a man of dubious honesty. And odds are, he’s fibbing about his sources actually being second hand. Probably they are just another hearsay tradent like Polycarp and Papias, relaying rumors that they “insist” the Apostle John “said” when in fact there was never any reason to believe that and it never happened. Indeed Carlson also admits “one may question” even Polycarp’s “actual relationship to the apostle John” (p. 20). I’ve shown it’s not credible at all (indeed Polycarp’s Letter to Florinus claiming this is likely another pious forgery of which Christians were so fond then).
A second problem with relying on Papias comes from disentangling what he said from what his reporters said. Carlson devotes a lot of detailed attention to this and comes up with, for example, a plausible case that the infamous death narrative for Judas credited to Papias has been embellished in the telling and that Papias only wrote that “Judas walked around as a great example of impiety, having become so bloated in the flesh that he could not pass where a wagon easily can” (p. 56). Which is already enough to signal Papias’s gullibility. But all the ensuing nonsense stands a chance of not coming from him but later embellishers. I was not aware of this before. One could argue against Carlson on this point (his case is not slam-dunk). But it comes from a survey of new manuscripts and other information you might not find elsewhere, so you have to engage with Carlson’s survey of the evidence. Another example of Carlson finding lost data of interest is when he locates a medieval citation of Papias discoursing on angelology and demonology that you won’t find in the usual collections of fragments, which adds more insight into what kind of book Papias wrote (pp. 56–59), also further illuminating how much of a gullible superstitious weirdo Papias was.
Overall, Carlson does what no one really had properly done before: dig into the actual contexts of fragments and quotations and paraphrases and references to reanalyze their meaning, reliability, and intent. And he doesn’t just make assertions but presents all the best arguments pro and con any conclusion so you can judge his reasoning for yourself. And indeed the result can change how you understand what Papias did or didn’t say. Though the overall outcome is the same: Papias is not a reliable historian but a gullible repeater of rumors and urban legends who had no credible sources for anything he said. And yet his book influenced all subsequent Christian writers and historians, who essentially just believed him on anything they liked, and called him an idiot only when it came to things they didn’t like. But the latter assessment is clearly the correct one: he was not a genius, he was not a critical thinker, he was not a researcher, he was not even really a historian so much as an armchair tabloid reporter. Papias was a victim of methodological gullibility and superstitious fantastical thinking.
Papias is the ancient equivalent of the modern Kent Hovind, Ken Ham, Josh McDowell, or other unreliable Christian fundamentalists: prone to just believing whatever he heard or wants to be true; really questioning, researching, testing, or investigating nothing; and possibly willing to piously fudge or exaggerate. He’s like the Christian plumber who tells you about the pit of hell discovered by Russian miners or the coverup that NASA found a day missing in the global calendar proving Joshua stopped the sun, or that he personally met the Wandering Jew who told him about his conversations with Jesus over a beer. Tall tales like Craig Keener spent two whole volumes gullibly believing just last decade. Or that your average preacher fabricates every Sunday. Relying on Papias for the history of Christianity is like relying on Answers in Genesis for paleology.
But an effect of all this is that Carlson makes a good case for understanding Papias’s Exposition of Dominical Oracles as a commentary on Old Testament and Apocryphal prophecies foretelling the affairs of Jesus, which in turn only occasioned him digressing on such matters as where we hear of those affairs (e.g. the Gospels) or necessary background assumptions (e.g. that Genesis described angels impregnating women to produce the demons Jesus battles thousands of years later) or the fulfillment of prophecy after Jesus (and thus of the sayings and prophecies of Jesus). So he was mining his sources for tales about what the first generation of believers and witnesses said about all those things, because Papias believed urban legends more reliable than textbooks. This is why Papias discoursed on the fate of Judas or the gigantic grapes in the afterlife, linking both to pre-Christian Jewish prophecies and thus explicating the latter through the former, essentially revealing the “secret” Christian meaning of Old Testament passages. Which may alter how you understand what Papias thought he was doing, and what really was in his five lost volumes.
Concluding Remarks
Carlson’s study is the best treatment of all the references to and from Papias yet in print. Thorough, up to date, often insightful, and only occasionally gullible. It is all essential reading even where you might disagree with it, but especially where it’s convincing. Because beyond the points I have already made, Carlson’s study also helps answer diverse questions, such as why Papias’s treatise was not preserved and only barely ever explicitly cited or quoted: he was declared a heretic for his chiliastic theologies, which evidently his five volumes were rife with. This entangled him in the wrong side of resurrection doctrine and soteriology. It was thus not generally desirable to say you were using him as a source (explaining why a lot may be coming from him under generic phrases like “they say” or “it is said”), and naming him occurred only when he was being directly quoted or the merits of something he said challenged or discussed. The heretical nature of his text also disinclined Christian librarians to continue to copy it.
Even though a lot of Papias’s text may have been inoffensive or even useful, the mere fact that it was associated with damnable heresies was sufficient to effectively blacklist it. Which also cast his believed trustworthiness in doubt, but more importantly, no one wanted to be caught “preserving” heretical books even for orthodox reasons—a motive that was not held in much esteem amidst medieval hostility to even a hint of aiding heresy. Magnifying this decision would be the fact that likely a lot of his attempts at interpreting scripture, even when not suspected of heresy, had become unpopular or obsolete, clashing with more fashionable views of the post-Constantinian era. So it became heretical and unpopular. Papias’s book was thus lost, probably already by the 6th century if not earlier. Jerome is the last person to mention it still being extant, and no one after him credibly indicates they saw a copy themselves. All later mentions or even quotations of it were through intermediaries like Eusebius, or even Jerome, who also never used Papias but only replicated what Eusebius said about him and his work.
Carlson’s Papias of Hierapolis Exposition of Dominical Oracles also sports an extensive bibliography, a subject index, an author index, and a scripture and ancient sources index. Combined with his complete survey of all the enumerated and analyzed evidence, this is now the definitive resource for understanding this lost early Christian author, whether to argue or agree with.





Concerning Papias on Mark and Matthew:
I’m not convinced that Papias says anything about the so-called Gospels of Mark and Matthew.
As quoted by Eusebius, Papias says that Mark wrote a book, and that Matthew wrote a book. So far as I can tell, though, he says nothing that connects those books to the respective Gospels. The books he describes don’t even seem to be very good matches for the Gospels we have.
Irenaeus, or whoever first attributed authorship to the Gospels, may have leaned on Papias to justify his picks. Or maybe something Papias said really did make those connections in one or more passages now lost to us. But in what we have now, I don’t see any connection beyond Church traditions.
That’s a valid point:
Scholars have long noted that one can question whether Papias is talking about “our” Gospels, and the transfer of those names to ours was a coincidence or a mimetic error.
That’s possible, even plausible. I just don’t think it’s likely. Because that theory requires too many epicycles (too many coincidences and hidden causal levers we have no evidence of), whereas the simplest theory (hence what Ockham’s Razor leaves us with) is that Papias is simply repeating bogus lore and is too unintelligent to realize why it’s bogus.
That stands on ample evidence (he is a gullible buffoon in pretty much everything we have any quote from him on, so we don’t have to posit this explanatory lever ad hoc). And it explains all remaining evidence.
Moreover, it agrees with the state of the evidence in one crucial sense: (1) we have no evidence of the other Gospels he would have to have been referring to, giving it a bad likelihood ratio, and (2) we have abundant evidence that the canonicals were named when published together and not before (and thus those names did not even exist until then—apart from the Epistles also published with them that those names were creatively snatched from that had nothing actually to do with authoring Gospels), so the idea that Papias is referring to the anti-Marcionite edition of all four canonical Gospels as-there-named has a good likelihood ratio. This means Papias has to have written no earlier than the 140s (the earliest that edition could have been produced). And thus likely also mentioned Luke and John (hence my point in the article above).
As for the better explanation of the naming of the Gospels as done by the editor of the anti-Marcionite multiplex edition by using named persons in Epistles also included in that edition: see Trobisch’s “Who Published the Gospels” (more speculative than but reinforced by his subsequent books, which I discuss in Three Things to Know about New Testament Manuscripts and Was the Entire New Testament Forged in the Second Century?).
Luke, Mark, and John all come from letters (including the fake one inside Revelation), and all connect to Papias’s fake storyline.
Matthew comes from the Gospel itself, which switched Matthew in for Levi thus inviting a supposition of hidden naming (or from Acts, insofar as in the lottery for Matthias it’s the same name just a different declension). A Hebrew name in a Hebrew job in a Hebrew land with Hebrew friend and family, implying a Hebrew author. Hence the legend. And why Matthew was placed before Mark in most editions, to sell the idea that Mark is a redaction of the same “lore” recorded by Matthew (we now know better) which (we are meant to believe) came first (being from a direct Apostle rather than second-hand) but is still just as indirect (being translated into Greek; the Papias line also implies knowledge of Luke as a translator of Matthaian material, and perhaps of Peter doing the same in his dictation to Mark).
Mark comes from 1 Peter implying someone serving Peter (with fake connections to Paul). Hence the legend: a servant (“boy”) of Peter’s wrote the Gospel attributed to Mark, thus to explain why Mark looks similar to Matthew but is shorter and in a different order (exactly what Papias is quoted saying).
John of course gets back to another prized disciple, who was already in telephone-legend connected to the fathers Papias and Polycarp (in fact this was a confusion for a different John but that doesn’t matter to a forger of a fake backstory) and Luke is the medical companion of Paul as everyone wanted to sell Luke-Acts as being from—a medical companion of Paul that only exists in fake Epistles that just by coincidence were published in the same anti-Marcionite edition (along with one in the Marcionite edition, thus coopting Marcion’s own materials to argue against him).
So all these legends make sense as “just so” stories to sell what the editors wanted you to believe about each Gospel, exploiting justification by using thus-connected names appearing elsewhere in the edition. The edition that just so happened to add materials to the Marcionite edition that just so happen to coincide with the legends Papias is selling: 1 Peter is added, establishing Mark as his “boy,” and Matthew is added changing Levi to Matthew and establishing another dinner companion of Jesus, alongside John as claimed also within the Gospel of “John,” as an author, and the other two, Mark and Luke, as companions of the lead Apostles Peter and Paul, respectively (using the inclusion against Marcion of Acts and other fake letters to further the latter, playing on the inclusion of Mark and Luke in one thing retained from Marcion: Colossians, for a perfect gotcha).
Thanks for this. This kind of reasoning is very solid and is sorely missing in the field writ large.
I haven’t read this book yet, so my impressions are based on your commentary. That said, I’m having a bit of heartburn over the thought that such a very early and important work as Papias’ would be trashed because he ended up on the wrong side of much later doctrinal squabbles. Several prominent early Christian writers were condemned by later generations for being insufficiently faithful to doctrines that weren’t invented until long after they died – Tertullian and Origen come to mind – but though many of their writings were lost, there was no general purge And they didn’t have anything like the historical importance that Papias was believed to have had.
We can say the same of other “lost books” that get less attention but are even more important. I will name two because I have studied them recently but I have not exhaustively checked how many others we can pinpoint (being referred to, for example, yet we can no longer find them), but there certainly are more I could name. If anyone reading this thinks of other second century examples of Christian “scholarship” (I mean books that are commentaries or histories or anything similar, and not just Gospels or Epistles) please add them.
But the two I have in mind are:
Heracleon’s Commentary on John. We have extensive quotes from Origen and they collectively look like Heracleon was a mythicist. We would surely then want to see the whole commentary especially its prologue. There was a recent study of this: Carl Berglund, Origen’s References to Heracleon: A Quotation-Analytical Study of the Earliest Known Commentary on the Gospel of John (Mohr Siebrek, 2020).
Aristion’s (or Ariston’s) Dialogue of Jason and Papiscus the Jew (or possible Explanation of the Stories of the Lord if that was a second book title and not actually just referring to the Dialogue). See Hitler Homer, pp. 286–88. This is the suspected source of the Long Ending of Mark (being a harmonizing paraphrase of all four Gospels’ appearance narratives as an explanatory appendix to Mark). What else did it contain?
We also have references to other sects making arguments (and as I argue in Obsolete Paradigm were mythicists) that we don’t have exact texts named but there likely were some. And of course there is Marcion’s Antitheses which may have said things of value in passing that we’d like to read. And then there are all the lost letters of Paul (like his original first letter to the Corinthians, and likely the original several letters our 1 and 2 Corinthians are just a mix-matched selection of). And so on.
Well, yes, but …
Certainly the Church would have seen to it that no mythicist texts survived to pollute the innocent minds of the faithful. IMO that’s the likeliest explanation for the missing letters of Paul; since Paul was certainly a mythicist Christian (there being no other kind in his day), at least a few of his letters must have contained material that was too explicitly mythicist to be allowed to survive. Paul was too revered for them to be able to get away with excising his entire corpus, so we’re left with our surviving remnant, possibly fleshed out with the contributions of Pseudo-Paul. But Papias wasn’t a mythicist.
Neither was Aristion (or whoever wrote “Jason and Papiscus”), at least as far as we can tell from what of it survives. But neither did he claim to have spoken with people who had known the original Apostles. As far as I know, Papias is the only such witness known to us.
“Jason and Papiscus” would be interesting to us, sure, but maybe it just wasn’t as interesting to its audience at the time as “Dialogue with Trypho,” and the best book won.
Certainly. But knowing why we lack the documents doesn’t give us the documents. We still don’t have them. And the data in them would be useful even when they weren’t mythicists (but obviously especially if they were).
I think generally the medievals had a bottleneck of limited resources and force-ranked what to copy and thus keep, and so yes, things they just weren’t as hot for didn’t make the cut. But the evidence suggests a lot of what was cut was for reasons of doctrine and fashion: those deciding just didn’t like, or didn’t want to be seen as preserving, certain unpopular or even “dangerous” things.
Interesting book. Alas the price of reading is pretty high for my budget. I am having difficulty reading comments, particularly replies like yours, because of small font size. Your new comments format does not allow expansion with 2 fingers on a cell phone. I have the Chrome browser on a Samsung android phone.
The way to go for the book is interlibrary loan. Get a library card at your nearest public, and ask them how to make an ILL request (most now let you do this from home online, once you have a card and thus an account). Sometimes that’s free, though lately they’ve been upping nominal charges, but those are still like just $15 or $20.
Meanwhile, thanks for the tip on the formatting. I’ll see if I can do anything about that.
So, I checked. I can expand the comments with fingers on my iPhone.
Since I can’t replicate what is preventing your phone from doing that, I don’t know how to fix it. You can try tooling around and see if there is a fix on your end, or if you figure out why it’s doing that but can’t fix it on your end let me know and I’ll see if that’s anything I can control on my end.
But for reference here is what the comments look like to me on my iPhone SE (which is the smallest phone Apple ever made that hasn’t been deprecated). And this is vertical mode. I will follow this with what it looks like turned to landscape.
This is landscape (and my screen is small, roughly 4 inches by 2)…
I can enlarge it further but that requires scroll-reading (which I can still do, it’s just inconvenient as you may know). That is not adjustable because the font size is fixed by the thread leveling (so far as I know).
This may be tangential and off-topic, and I apologize in advance, but if you have a spare few minutes at some point, can you share your how this affects your view of MacDonald’s Two Shipwrecked Gospels? Could this monograph, if he were to read it, possibly alleviate some of his overly-speculative hypotheses?
We need MacDonald to get on board, for the sake of the field.
Carlson cites MacDonald a lot—not always supportingly, but just as presenting this or that argument. For example, Carlson disagrees with (and makes a good case against) MacDonald’s understanding of the meaning of the title and its preface. While Carlson agrees with the mainstream position also shared by MacDonald that Papias wrote “before” the Gospels of Luke and John. But he doesn’t take up MacDonald’s argument that Luke’s preface is reacting to Papias. Etc.
In the end, it won’t matter. Any argument Carlson made to the contrary, MacDonald would just disagree.
I don’t think MacDonald is operating anymore on evidence-based reasoning but has a religious mission (he’s said so outright) to convince Christians to understand the real Jesus the way MacDonald’s reconstruction sells him (he wants to naturalize Christianity as a wisdom faith rather than a supernatural one based on his invented Q-Plus “scripture,” which is why he identifies as a Christian atheist).
So MacDonald needs his new conclusions to be true, in a way he didn’t “need” his mimesis critical work to be. And from what I have seen behind the scenes, I think he has been browbeaten by colleagues into believing that showing any sympathy with mythicism will hurt his religious “cause.” So his emotional attachment to that cause now renders him immovable by any persuasion. And that is unlikely to change for the rest of his life.
MacDonald has, anyway, announced his retirement from biblical scholarship.
In other news, biblical scholarship went two millennia without definitive scholarship on Papias.
Dr. Carrier I was trying to find where you had posted your opinion as to whether the town of Nazareth actually existed (more specifically at the time that the Gospels were written). My recollection was that you were agnostic about it – saying that we don’t know either way for sure. Please confirm if my memory serves me correct concerning your opinion on that.
The reason that I bring that up now is that I was just watching a YouTube short titled “Responding to an outdated mythicist claim” where Daniel McClellan states that we now know that the town of Nazareth existed at the time that the Gospels were written. I’m curious if you concur with his assessment.
https://youtube.com/shorts/4gm8Q8NJxXk?si=Il9OQTLo6ETt3tV7
I have always held that we are pretty sure Nazareth existed and everyone who says otherwise is wrong and should stop saying this.
Apart from the weakness of arguments from silence (all of which are deeply problematic), the best evidence is the Priestly Orders inscription documenting where the priestly lines moved to after the temple was destroyed (since that’s where they lived before), and Nazareth is one of the towns on that list. Which means it can’t have been a yokel hamlet either. And archaeology shows it had real houses in the early Roman period, not just a bunch of huts.
Also, even if Nazareth didn’t exist, that adds zero weight to Jesus not being historical. So it’s also a bad argument even apart from its minor premise being unsustainable.
Because the identification of Jesus as the Nazorian does not come from the town. That was a later mythic fabrication even if the town existed. And mythic fabrications are as likely of a historical as a mythical person. To say otherwise requires a completely different approach to the data as explained in Ch. 6 of OHJ and now Ch. 5 of OPH.
I have been pointing this out since my first study: see OHJ, p. 258 n. 8. And my remarks in re: the Price-Ehrman debate.
And indeed McClellan cites the best go-to studies published since then:
Ken Dark, Roman-Period and Byzantine Nazareth and its Hinterland (2019)
Yardenna Alexandre, “The Settlement History of Nazareth in the Iron Age and Early Roman Period,” ‘Atiqot 98 (2020)
Very interesting blog. Thanks for this. Btw, my book ‘Bible Stories: Fact, Fiction & Fantasy in Scripture will be published by Icon on October 18. I could email you a PDF of it if you like. Best. Gavin Evans
Thank you, but, generally, I haven’t time anymore to receive manuscripts (I have too many queries). I can only examine mss. now when in consultation on hire. Nevertheless, I did receive yours (from your publisher) but alas won’t have time to vet it. I can only say that at a glance it looks reasonable.
Hi, it’s been a long time since I commented. I was in your counterapologetics class and a few others in 2015-2018 or so. We met briefly a couple times in Michigan. I have a kinda long rambly comment pertaining to the murkiness of early Christian sources. It’s not specifically about Papias, but he’s one example, and the telephone games you’ve written about illustrate the problem.
Most atheist counterapologetics work seems to be directed against Protestantism, but there’s also a lot that can be developed against Catholicissm. Some of this could involve elaborating on the history of early Christianity–including the early Bishops of Rome, and the (scanty and unreliable) sources thereof.
Many Protestants need to worry about the early Christian sources for the Gospels’ authorship, the martyrdom of apostles, and maybe a few other things. But many Catholics need to worry about most/all of *this* stuff, PLUS a LOT more. Some Catholics also need to worry about the early sources for some of their teachings about Mary, as well as the early Popes. Even ignoring the issues concerning how the Papacy office & doctrine developed over time, the basic idea of the Bishop of Rome involves some problems–such as the succession lists.
A key doctrine of standard Catholicism is the Papacy–which relies heavily on the idea of unbroken apostolic succession from Peter onwards, as the Bishop of Rome. But we simply do not have high-quality historical evidence pertaining to Peter’s career in Rome (if he even went there), or ANY of the first several (purported) Bishops of Rome. I think it is even disputed when the Bishop of Rome became a thing at all, even before the idea that it had primacy. The early records are too weak to support faith in an unbroken lineage with much confidence.
The first several Bishops of Rome are supposedly Peter, Linus, Anacletus, Clement I, and Evaristus. I don’t think there exist sources for most of these figures prior to the mid-late second century (except Peter and Clement I). And if you’re right that 1 Clement dates from early (60s) rather than late (90s), I think that might mess up Clement’s position in the “Pope List” timeline as well? Or it risks doing so.
This list stems from sources like Iranaeus, who in turn (maybe) drew upon earlier sources that no longer exist and which we cannot examine.
I have also seen your comment elsewhere, noting that some of the heretic sects created their own distinct lists of apostolic succession–Marcion, Valentinus, the Sabellians, the Naasenes, the Montanists, and the Ebionites, and the Ophites.
Now, it could be maybe be argued that those lines of succession were basically accurate, but less authoritative than the list of Bishops of Rome. But it could also be that those lines of succession involved offices that did not exist, or ritualized transfers of authority which did not happen. Maybe some of them were also less formalized than the Roman Bishopric supposedly was (though again, the Roman Bishopric seems NOT formalized in the early times).
But assuming we have no more strong evidence for the series of Bishops of Rome (and certainly our evidence for them occupying the office, or for how the office operated, is still highly indirect and weak), then this is a problem for resting a huge part of one’s worldview on the notion that the standard list of Bishops of Rome is accurate. And if it’s inaccurate, it might not be unbroken–and that’s bad news for the Papacy doctrine & Apostolic Succession.
Gavin Ortlund recently made a video which made some waves in Protestant vs. Catholic debate circles on YouTube, called “The Papacy is Not from God.” Ortlund is a Protestant, but I think there’s room for convergence between Protestant and atheist arguments against the foundations of distinctively Catholic doctrine, via arguments from the early Church evidence. Protestants are (to a degree) in the same position as atheists, in making the case that the Catholic Church is a human institution, not a divinely ordained one, and that the accretion of doctrine over time debunks notions of divine authority or infallibility (though I’d want to be careful not to strawman what precisely Catholics say is infallible, which may be subtle and come with plausible deniability).
Ortlund has also made other videos on topics that could be of interest to counterapologetics, such as his arguing that doctrine of the Assumption of Mary was a historical development first seen among non-orthodox Christians and with no early historical evidence–not only no evidence it happened, but no evidence that any early Christians *believed* it happened. And plausibly the silence here is evidence it didn’t happen. And if the Assumption–which was asserted by the Pope speaking “infallibly” ex cathedra–is a false doctrine, then Catholicism is false.
At the same time, Catholics can make some compelling arguments against Protestants, like (1) asking “Would God have let the true religion fall under a false church for 1000+ years before anyone set the record straight?”, (2) pointing to (some) Protestants’ reliance on the early Ecumenical Councils, and (3) arguing if there’s no central authority then the Bible is too hard to interpret to provide moral or theological guidance, as shown by immense Protestant diversity (cf. John Loftus’s “problem of divine miscommunication”).
And also, the evidence for some (Catholicism-supporting) Marian apparitions is arguably on par with the evidence for the Resurrection–but Protestants can’t accept these Marian apparitions. This calls the evidentiary standards for the Resurrection into question, for Protestants.
I’m looking at this kind of like how John Loftus would cite liberals and Evangelicals to argue against each other, with atheism (or something near enough) left as the ultimate victor. Maybe more atheist counterapologists should work on showing how the Protestant and Catholic arguments defeat each other.
The reason we mostly ignore Catholicism is that the very things you just explained establish that they already lost the argument. So there is no case even to bother rebutting. “Our guy is inspired by God” is such weak tea it is almost immediately self-refuting. It hardly requires rebuttal.
The reason Evangelicals win in the market of rhetoric is that they at least have a text to defend. Liberal Christians, like Catholics, abandoned that, and thus have no defense of their religion left, that differs in any way from what Evangelicals already master (like cosmological and ontological arguments and the like).
See my discussion in What’s the Harm, especially here.
Pour situer correctement l’époque à laquelle Papias a écrit une œuvre, qu’il a probablement préparée pendant plus de dix ans, il suffit de traduire rigoureusement la phrase dans laquelle il explique ce qu’il a fait. En grec, la voici :
(4) εἰ δέ που καὶ παρηκολουθηκώς τις τοῖς πρεσβυτέροις ἔλθοι, τοὺς τῶν πρεσβυτέρων ἀνέκρινον λόγους· τί Ἀνδρέας ἢ τί Πέτρος εἶπεν ἢ τί Φίλιππος ἢ τί Θωμᾶς ἢ Ἰάκωβος ἢ τί Ἰωάννης ἢ Ματθαῖος ἤ τις ἕτερος τῶν τοῦ κυρίου μαθητῶν, ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, λέγουσιν.
Remarques préparatoires : ne sont pas traduits correctement par l’ensemble de la profession, les éléments suivants : kai parêkolouthêkôs tis : pour interpréter correctement une forme du parfait attique il faut lire mon ouvrage sur le parfait, intitulé Les Degrés du verbe. Mot à mot : kai, même si (participe) c’est quelqu’un (tis) qui a parfaitement bien suivi (parfait) André, Simon, etc. en étant à ses côtés (para) ou à côté (para : c’est-à-dire hors du champ de sa vue, à l’écart) ! ekrinon … (an‘) : j’ai passé au crible (en remontant à…) λόγους : les propos (d’André, etc.) rapportés par leurs compagnons…an’ha te… legousin : en remontant à (ana) ce que (ha) à chaque fois (τε / te) Aristion et Jean l’Ancien mettent en relation.
D’abord, il faut se défaire de la ponctuation de l’éditeur moderne de la phrase : il n’y a pas de ponctuation dans les manuscrits antiques et donc la ponctuation moderne reflète l’intelligence que l’éditeur a de la phrase. Or dans le cas, toutes ses hypothèses sont contestables. Le point au-dessus de la ligne après logous (·), équivalent de notre point-virgule, résulte d’une hypothèse injustifiée, selon laquelle ti Andreas ê ti Petros eipen, etc., est juxtaposé à tous tôn presbuterôn logous, mais n’en est pas, en termes grammaticaux, une expansion. Si c’est cela que Papias avait voulu nous faire entendre, il ne pouvait pas ne pas formuler autrement ; il aurait écrit : tous tôn presbuterôn anekrinon logous kai (et ce que…) ti Andreas ê ti Petros eipen, kai, etc…. La juxtaposition de ti Andreas ê ti Petros eipen à tous tôn presbuterôn logous n’autorise pas d’autre interprétation possible que ti Andreas ê ti Petros eipen, etc., est une expansion de logous, est, en terme grammatical traditionnel, en apposition à logous. Papias ekrine tous logous tôn presbuterôn, « passa au crible » (ekrine) tous logous (les propos rapportés) tôn presbuterôn (par les Anciens), (c’est-à-dire) ce qu’André, etc. « avait dit… » (à ses compagnons).Car, ensuite, il faut interpréter correctement, du point de vue grammatical, la fonction du dernier groupe de la phrase, ha te Aristiôn kai ho presbuteros Jôannês, tou kuriou mathêtai, legousin, déjà en supprimant les virgules. Dans cette construction te n’est pas un coordonnant, l’équivalent de kai, comme l’interprètent tous les spécialistes sans exception, même Wotke, dans l’article de la Real Encyclopädie, même le dernier interprète de la phrase, Stephen Carlson (qui a indûment transformé un présent legousin en un passé : s’il avait été coordonnant, le verbe de la proposition aurait été au passé comme les verbes précédents : Papias a interrogé leurs compagnons sur ce que les disciples du maître « avaient dit » et aussi sur ce qu’Aristion et Jean « avait dit ». Or le verbe employé dans la relative est au présent, legousin ; il faut également tenir compte de son sens spécifique, « mettre en relation ». De même, plus haut, les logous, ce sont des propos « rapportés ».
La construction de ce type de relative, ha te… a été examinée de près par un philologue hollandais dans un ouvrage écrit en français ; pour nous, l’essentiel de sa thèse revient à dire qu’il existe un emploi adverbial de τε, qui se distingue de son emploi comme coordonnant (au sens de kai, et). Malheureusement, il a fait son analyse en grammairien de la langue homérique, et non en « linguiste » ; il n’a pas considéré le fait qu’il pouvait y avoir deux figures de mot, τε, homophones, mais appartenant à deux racines différentes : τε coordonnant est l’analogue de que latin (et), ce que Ruijgh appelle τε, « épique » appartient à la famille des déictiques, je, te, ke ; la terminaison ε est adverbiale ; elle a une valeur corrélative et distributive : Papias a évalué ce qu’un compagnon lui a rapporté de ce qu’André « avait dit », en remontant (ana) « à chaque fois » (te) à « ce qu’Aristion met en relation (au moment où il lui présente des témoignages d’André), « à chaque fois » à ce que Jean l’Ancien met également en relation (également au moment où Papias lui présente ce qu’André aurait dit).
On en déduira que Papias consultait Aristion et Jean l’Ancien séparément, sans cela son « attestation » n’aurait pas été valable. Il est peu probable, en effet, qu’Aristion, un Grec, ait fait partie du cercle fermé auquel Jean appartenait. Mais surtout, on en déduira qu’Aristion et Jean l’Ancien, disciples du maître, ont encore été les contemporains de Papias, qui a fait son enquête auprès des compagnons d’autres disciples du maître, alors disparus, c’est-à-dire, si on compte 40 ans en moyenne pour une génération, entre 70 (30, année de la mort de Jésus + 40) et 110, soit dans les années 80-90.
Cela dit, cela n’est que le début de l’argumentation qui m’a permis de remonter à l’enseignement de Jésus de Nazareth, etc. Sur tout cela voir De Jésus de Nazareth à la fondation du christianisme (je précise : au temps d’Ignace d’Antioche et de Clément de Rome, après l’enquête de Papias, à partir de 100 environ) ainsi que Enseignement de Jésus suivi du Mémoire des Chrestiens, éditions Golias, Villeurbanne, 2024 et 2025.
Désolé pour le français, que je vous laisse traduire par le procédé qui vous convient.
Amicalement.
André Sauge
For readers here, André Sauge presents here an elaborate grammatical argument for dating the text of Papias to 100 AD, in agreement with his own books Jésus de Nazareth contre Jésus-Christ (with multiple volumes in one binding on Amazon US).
I’ll just say tl;dr I don’t find anything convincing here. My analysis in the above article supersedes all of this. Papias does not actually say he met Aristion or John, and accordingly even Eusebius is unsure that’s what he meant, and in any event we don’t know their dates anyway (neither was a disciple of Jesus).
And Papias is otherwise clear he asked for stories from people who knew about (supposedly) the disciples, not people who knew Jesus, and we can’t even know that that’s true (anyone could go around claiming to have known a disciple; Papias shows no signs of even knowing how, much less that, he should have confirmed that before just believing it, and Papias is, as I note, not even clear that he means people who “knew” the apostles rather than people of “renown” who claimed to know things about them) which further complicates any reliable dating.
But even if we assume this is true, and Papias really means, people who knew the first apostles (who may not have been calling themselves disciples then), the first generation probably died out mostly by 70 and entirely by 80 AD (1 Clement is a late 60s text), and the second generation would continue to ~140 AD (half of those age 20 in 80 would be dead by 110, but half would last one or more decades beyond, as far as the 140s, when rare stragglers would be in their 80s). And that would be when he spoke to them. Not when he wrote about it. He could have been relying on memory from decades earlier. He likewise could be “drunk uncling” (exaggerating even what he remembered doing or hearing).
So we can’t securely say Papias wrote in 100. And all the evidence suggests (as I note) it had to be decades later (including details such as that Papias gained fame only after the reign of Trajan, which sooner suggests that’s when he published: after Trajan, not before Trajan).
And that’s assuming Papias was lucky and not (as usual) gullible. It is doubtful anyone actually told him they knew the first apostles (he is prone to hyperbole, presumption, and overconfidence, and he never clearly says this either), and it is doubtful that if any did that they were telling him the truth. Since we have no evidence that Papias could even name any of these people or confirm they knew an apostle personally, and the stories he credits to them are all ridiculous, it would be folly to trust any of this in dating his text.
Voici ma réponse au premier § de votre réponse.
I’ll just say tl;dr I don’t find anything convincing here. My analysis in the above article supersedes all of this. Papias does not actually say he met Aristion or John, and accordingly even Eusebius is unsure that’s what he meant, and in any event we don’t know their dates anyway (neither was a disciple of Jesus).
Manifestement, Monsieur, votre lecture du grec n’est pas suffisamment rigoureuse.
Je vous rappelle ici ce que dit exactement Papias pour présenter ce qu’il a fait :
« (4) εἰ δέ που καὶ παρηκολουθηκώς τις τοῖς πρεσβυτέροις ἔλθοι, τοὺς τῶν πρεσβυτέρων ἀνέκρινον λόγους· τί Ἀνδρέας ἢ τί Πέτρος εἶπεν ἢ τί Φίλιππος ἢ τί Θωμᾶς ἢ Ἰάκωβος ἢ τί Ἰωάννης ἢ Ματθαῖος ἤ τις ἕτερος τῶν τοῦ κυρίου μαθητῶν, ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, (5) λέγουσιν.
οὐ γὰρ τὰ ἐκ τῶν βιβλίων τοσοῦτόν με ὠφελεῖν ὑπελάμβανον, ὅσον τὰ παρὰ ζώσης φωνῆς καὶ μενούσης. » (Cité par Eusèbe de Césarée, Histoire ecclésiastique, III, 39, 4-5)
Tous les traducteurs font la même erreur, et donc vous-même aussi, ils interprètent τε dans « ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, λέγουσιν » comme un coordonnant, dans le sens de καί, ce qui est grammaticalement impossible ; en effet, si τε était « coordonnant » (« conjonction de coordination », « et » en français, « and » en anglais) le verbe λέγουσιν aurait été au même temps verbal que les verbes précédents ; Papias aurait écrit : ἢ ἅ Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί εἷπον, « ou bien (encore) ce qu’Aristion et Jean l’Ancien, disciple du rabbi / du maître, avaient dit. » En traduisant λέγουσιν, un présent, par « was saying », Carlson ne respecte pas le texte grec, il se trompe et trompe son lecteur, et sans cela, sans aucune explication. Voilà la sort de manque de sérieux que je reproche aux « exégètes », aux spécialistes de la lecture du NT.
La phrase grecque doit être construite comme suit :
εἰ δέ που, καὶ παρηκολουθηκώς τοῖς πρεσβυτέροις, τις ἔλθοι, τοὺς τῶν πρεσβυτέρων [ἀν]- έκρινον λόγους, τί Ἀνδρέας ἢ τί Πέτρος εἶπεν ἢ τί Φίλιππος ἢ τί Θωμᾶς ἢ Ἰάκωβος ἢ τί Ἰωάννης ἢ Ματθαῖος ἤ τις ἕτερος τ ῶν τοῦ κυρίου μαθητῶν [εἶπεν], ἀν’ ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, λέγουσιν.
Παρηκολουθηκώς : le participe parfait exprime l’idée de quelqu’un qui a été « de bout en bout », « constamment » « parfaitement » le compagnon de / dans la compagnie d’un ancien, et cela para, « à ses côtés » ou « à côté » = en un autre lieu, mais en sorte qu’il a les moyens de s’informer sur lui.
J’ai expliqué cette valeur du parfait dans un ouvrage intitulé Les degrés du verbe. Sens et formation du parfait grec ancien, Lang, Berne, ouvrage publié avec les subsides du Fonds National Suisse.
τοὺς τῶν πρεσβυτέρων λόγους = (c’est la même chose que) τί Ἀνδρέας ἢ τί Πέτρος εἶπεν, etc. Si cela n’avait pas été la même chose, Papias aurait nécessairement écrit : τοὺς τῶν πρεσβυτέρων [ἀν]- έκρινον λόγους, καὶ (et ce que…) τί Ἀνδρέας ἢ τί Πέτρος εἶπεν
τ ῶν τοῦ κυρίου μαθητῶν = τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί Les Anciens, André, Pierre (Simon), Philippe, Jacque, Jean, Matthieu ont été des disciples du Maître comme Aristion et Jean ont été les disciples du Maître. Ce Jean, associé à Aristion, a lui aussi été un Ancien ; il a remplacé, à un moment donné, Jean, frère de Jacques, fils de Zébédée, parce que les fils de Zébédée ont été exécutés entre 42 et 44 (août) par Agrippa 1er.
Enfin il faut construire έκρινον … , ἀν’ ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, λέγουσιν (« j’ai passé au crible (I sifted out) (les propos des Anciens que leurs compagnons m’ont rapportés = λόγους) ἀν’ἅ… en remontant à ce qu’Aristion et Jean l’Ancien me rapportent (au moment où je leur rapporte les propos des autres disciples du Maître, dont Sept Anciens).
Dans un texte dans lequel un auteur explique ce qu’il a fait, un verbe au temps présent renvoie au moment de l’énonciation du texte : le temps dans lequel Papias expose dans un écrit les propos du Maître qu’il a recueillis par l’intermédiaire des compagnons des Anciens, des disciples du Maître est encore le temps pendant lequel il rencontre et peut encore rencontre Aristion et Jean l’Ancien.
L’interprétation rigoureuse de la phrase de Papias citée par Eusèbe permet d’annuler toutes les spéculations sur les dates de Papias à partir de repérages « en l’air ».
Voici donc la traduction que je propose de la phrase que j’ai citée :
« Si à un endroit ou à un autre, à un moment ou à un autre (pou) quelqu’un arrivait (jusqu’à moi), quelqu’un qui avait été, de près ou de loin, un compagnons assidu des Anciens, je passais au crible (passé duratif) ce qu’André ou ce que Simon avaient dit (aoriste à valeur d’antériorité par rapport au moment où les compagnons rapportaient ce qu’ils avaient entendu d’eux), ou ce que Philippe, ou ce que Thomas ou ce que Jacques ou ce que Jean ou ce que Matthieu – ou quelqu’un d’autre des disciples du Maître – (avaient dit), je le passais au crible en remontant à ce qu’Aristion et à ce que Jean l’Ancien me rapportent.
οὐ γὰρ τὰ ἐκ τῶν βιβλίων τοσοῦτόν με ὠφελεῖν ὑπελάμβανον, ὅσον τὰ παρὰ ζώσης φωνῆς καὶ μενούσης.
« En effet je supposais que ce qui vient des livres ne m’était pas aussi profitable que ce qui vient d’une voix vivante, et qui perdure. »
Autrement dit Papias explique que, pour tester la qualité des propos rapportés par les compagnons des Anciens et autres disciples, ce qu’il entendait de vive voix, de la part d’Aristion et de Jean l’Ancien, était, pour son projet, plus profitable que ce qu’il aurait pu lire dans un ouvrage écrit de témoignages.
En Anglais (traduction Google : j’ai corrigé / would came > came / I would examine > I examined) :
“If, at any time or place, someone who had been, in any way, a close companion of the Elders, came to me, I examined carefully what they reported from the Elders—what Andrew or Simon had said, or what Philip, Thomas or James, John or Matthew—or anyone else among the Master’s disciples—(had said), (I examined it by) going back to what Aristion and John the Elder actually report (to me).
Indeed, I assumed that what comes from books was not as beneficial to me as what comes from a living voice, which endures.”
Traduction Microsoft :
“If at any place, at any time, any one should come (to me), one who had been, near or far, an assiduous companion of the ancients, I would sift through what Andrew, or what Simon, or what Philip, or what Thomas, or what James, or what John, or what Matthew—or any other of the Master’s disciples—had said, going back to what Aristion and John the Elder report.
Indeed, I supposed that what comes from books was not as profitable to me as what comes from a living voice, which endures. »
Carlson a traduit : “But if anyone who had also followed the elders came along, I would examine the words of the elders – what did Andrew our what did Peter say, or what did Philip, or what did Thomas or James, or what did John or Matthew, or any other of the disciples of the Lord – and what Aristion and John the elder, disciples of the Lord, were saying” (p. 141).
also followed : καί ne determine pas ἠκολουθηκώς mais παρά = « même à côté ».
I would examine : je crois qu’il faut traduire I examined tout simplement.
what did Andrew : non pas « ce qu’André dit » ou « disait », mais « ce qu’André avait dit » antérieurement au moment où Papias a interrogé son compagnon. Idem pour les autres « Anciens ».
and what pour ἅ τε est certainement l’erreur la plus grave, qui a induit « were saying » au lieu de « say » (ou mieux : report, actually). Le groupe ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης, τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταί, λέγουσιν est n’est pas complément du verbe ἀνέκρινον au même niveau que τί … εἶπεν, mais en tant qu’accusatif de relation : « j’évaluais (la valeur de vérité des) propos d’André, « en les mettant en rapport à » « ce qu’Aristion et Jean eux-mêmes rapportent » encore au moment j’écris mon ouvrage.
Votre discussion des dates de Papias, la traduction de Carlson reposent sur le préjugé qu’André, Simon, etc. étaient connu de Papias en tant qu’apôtres. Or la façon dont Papias s’exprimer n’admet aucun doute : pour lui André, Simon, etc. avaient statut d’Anciens, c’est à dire avaient été les membres d’un Conseil d’une Assemblée fondée par les “disciples du Maître” et non du “Seigneur” (Lord!) après la crucifixion, vers 33. Les apôtres ne sont apparus qu’au moment de la rédaction des évangiles de Matthieu, Marc et Luc, entre 100 et 115 (avant la mort d’Ignace d’Antioche).
Vous voudrez bien me pardonner, mais je ne pourrai pas poursuivre longtemps la discussion.
Your methodology of error is typical of people on the wrong side of things, e.g. you ignore and make no response to all the counterevidence I presented, and you blame “all translators” (all translators in the world) for being wrong and you (you alone) for being right, which is possible but suspicious, and warrants questioning whether you are overconfidently imprinting your desires onto the text rather than admitting the deliberate ambiguities in it (which are the real tell).
Case in point: you go on about the “impossibility” of a coordinating conjunction, but that is not “impossible” (it’s actually a contrastive conjunction, and is entirely allowed, indeed recommended, by the literary style of variatio). More importantly, while the present tense of the verb (legousin) suggests (as I note in my article) Papias believed these two guys were still around (Ariston and John the Elder, who all parties agree were not disciples of Jesus and that is what distinguishes them from the John the Apostle and the others listed—as again I note, following Carlson’s apt analysis), the sentence does not say Papias ever spoke to them.
The subordinate clause “what Ariston and John the Elder are saying” is contrasted with the disciples of the Lord the “followers of the elders” told stories of (what these long dead persons “said,” eipen, past tense), distinguishing these subordinated names as those whom “the followers of the elders” also tell stories of regarding what they are saying (present tense).
In other words, there is no grammatical construction here by which Papias says he spoke to or met Ariston and John the Elder. There is only a sentence saying he spoke to “followers of the elders” (never the elders themselves, much less the disciples), and while even that is ambiguous (as I explain in the article), the people who told him what others are saying are these unnamed “followers of the elders,” not the people listed by name. The people listed by name are the people about whom the “followers of the elders” told stories. Ariston and John the Elder are distinguished grammatically only in supposedly still being alive (vis “what the followers of the elders told me they are saying” vs. “what the followers of the elders told me those others had said”). Even that may be false (it expresses a belief, or a negligence of grammatical precision, of Papias, as noted) but that doesn’t matter for the grammar.
So going on about coordinating conjunctions is a moot point. It’s simply a fair way to loosely translate this into English, because English doesn’t have a distinct contrastive conjunction as in Greek. It makes no difference to the sense. Papias is saying he asked “other people” what all these named persons “are saying” or “said,” he is not saying he asked any of these named persons anything. And that’s the case no matter what you call the transition at ha te.
This is well treated by Carlson and leads to his and my agreement that the text has necessarily become corrupted, because the grammar entails “Ariston and the Elder John” are not disciples and therefore τοῦ κυρίου μαθηταὶ must have originally read disciples of the disciples of the Lord or something similar, because the sequence contrasts a list of “who were the disciples of the Lord” that “those who followed the elders” still have things to say about and about what “is said” by those who were not disciples of the Lord but nevertheless important (this most likely being the John who was the believed author of Revelation and the Ariston who is the believed author of an early commentary on the fourfold Gospel). Eusebius was aware of the ambiguity (as I show in the article). And Eusebius spoke better Greek than you or I.
But even if you are incredulous of an obvious dropped duplicative word (a common scribal error), Papias would simply have been wrong that Ariston and John the Elder were “disciples” in any literal sense, because they were not in Jesus’s circle and by no account even alive then. So nothing as to dating can be argued with this (except maybe that Papias was bad at math, but all evidence indicates he was, so denying that’s no escape either).
The Greek relating what “the followers of the elders” told Papias about εἶπεν ἢ τί … ἤ τις ἕτερος τῶν τοῦ κυρίου μαθητῶν ἅ τε Ἀριστίων καὶ ὁ πρεσβύτερος Ἰωάννης … λέγουσιν. So these are things the elders say these men said, and it’s a list of two sets of men, the disciples (including the Apostle John), and these extra guys who (might have been, unlike the disciples) still alive, whom we all know weren’t disciples (so either Papias miswrote that, meant something looser by it, was wrong, or the text was corrupted—the latter being grammatically most likely).
That’s simply the state of things. And there is no way to get around it with moot quibbles about the precise grammar.
Qu’est-ce qui vous autorise à dire ” that Ariston and John the Elder” “were not in Jesus’s circle and by no account even alive then” ?
Because they are everywhere distinguished as later persons not from that generation, all the way to Eusebius, and never by anyone else said to be otherwise. Ariston is attested as a second century author and therefore cannot have been a disciple (that’s biologically impossible). John the Elder refers to the author of Revelation, which was composed in the 90s AD and therefore is not very plausibly a disciple (he would have said he was, as that authority is too great to omit; and the probability of surviving into one’s 90s then was astronomically low, if not zero). Eusebius is correctly well aware of all this.
Even Papias’s splitting of “the disciples of the Lord” from these two indicates this same conclusion. It would be weird to have repeated the phrase “disciples of the Lord” without a designator like “also” if he meant these were two different lists of the same category of people. Hence Carlson and my conclusion that Papias probably wrote “disciples of disciples” and a common instance of inverse dittography resulted in losing the repeated word.
But failing that, Papias has to either mean something broader by it (as he is distinguishing John the Elder from John the Apostle, and no list of Apostles includes anyone named Ariston, nor is a rural Palestinian fringe cultist likely to have a Greek name like that; plus all the data above), or he had to have been duped into mistaking these later authors as disciples (since we know Papias was pretty stupid and easily gulled).
We therefore have no reliable evidence on which to believe these were disciples, and plenty of evidence to positively disbelieve it. The consensus is therefore correct about this.
Je ne peux malheureusement pas répondre maintenant. Je le ferai peut-être plus tard. Juste pour le moment : le “disbelieving” de l’ensemble du “scholarschip” concernant l’existence de “Jean l’Ancien”, disciple du maître, encore dans les années 80, en réalité jusqu’au début du règne de Trajan, ne repose que sur des présupposés qui prennent pour argent comptant la tradition qui affirme que Jésus de Nazareth s’est choisi des “Apôtres”. Les Apôtres ont été fabriqués, je vous l’ai déjà dit, au moment de l’écriture des Evangiles, pour moi et pour d’autres, au temps d’Ignace d’Antioche, entre 100 et 115 au plus tard.
There is actually no statement anywhere in antiquity that John the Elder was a disciple. Everywhere else he is so called to distinguish him from the disciple.
And this is self-evident in Revelation, where he explicitly omits any reference to his being a disciple, even though that would attach tremendous authority he needed for the text. Which essentially proves he couldn’t and thus wasn’t. And this was the most prominent and important John in the NT after the apostle.
The Jonannine Epistles meanwhile have no name of John in them (that was assigned later, outside the letter, when they were bundled with the Gospels), and are self-evident forgeries (see references in OHJ and OPH).
Even Papias is distinguishing him from the Apostle. And for all the reasons stated, appears not to have understood him as a literal disciple either (and even if he did, he’s the only one who did, and this is more readily explained by Papias’s otherwise well demonstrated stupidity).
See Did Polycarp Meet John the Apostle? for more.
Greetings
What is your response to Adele Collins who says that it is strange that mark has such a consistent attribution if it circulated anonymously, when other works began as anonymous, and were given different names
Adela Yarbro Collins and Harold W. Attridge, Mark: A Commentary on the Gospel of Mark, Hermeneia—a Critical and Historical Commentary on the Bible (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 2007), 2–3.
Also most critical scholars do in fact agree that Papias attributed the canonical gospel to John Mark.
Kok, Michael. Tax Collector to Gospel Writer. Fortress Press (2023)
Kok briefly expressed his reasons for dissent from Ehrman in particular on his own site
There are other reasons to explain why Papias described Mark’s gospel in the manner he did
Kok, Michael. Four Evangelists and a Heresy Hunter. Self-Publication, 2025
These are all pretty ignorant or naive remarks. They read more like apologetics than attentively critical scholarship.
Mark is anti-Petrine so obviously cannot by any elaborate thesis be what Papias describes (Matthew would be describable that way; not Mark). Everything else Papias says is also impossible (Matthew cannot have originated in Hebrew, etc.). So there is only one sound conclusion: Papias doesn’t know what he’s talking about. And that thesis is well supported by everything else we have from Papias, all of which is ridiculous, yet he believed it, showing he had zero reliability. And we even have his statement of method documenting its unreliability. So that is the only logical conclusion here.
Meanwhile, as to the circulation of the names, that is because all our manuscripts originate from the same edition that named them all (as proved by Trobisch: see Three Things to Know about New Testament Manuscripts, which also explains why the names must have been assigned there, all at once, and not before; in addition to the obvious fact that the names would be explained in-text if they were original, as otherwise they are meaningless and their value, as witness or tradent, is lost for not being documented—whereas it was the norm to publish bible-format tales anonymously, from the ancient Kings literature it emulates to the modern novellas it resembles, like Tobit and Joseph and Aseneth).
So one has to work out or decide when Papias wrote: before (and therefore between 100 and 140 AD), or after that edition (and therefore between 140 and 160 AD).
If before, then the selection of what to name the Gospels in the anti-Marcionite edition we have fragments of was based on Papias, and it wasn’t Papias’s mistake so much as theirs (e.g. the choice to put “Mark” atop our Gospel came later, and Papias had in mind some other Gospel we don’t have, or even was thinking of what we now call Matthew, and repeating an invented legend about it, not reading the name off it).
I am inclined to believe it’s after, and that in fact Papias wove stories about all four Gospels, not just Mark and Matthew. In this theory, the entire chapter in which Eusebius says he relied on Papias is a paraphrase or summary of Papias, and thus the stories Eusebius relates of John and Luke are also from Papias, and he only quotes Papias on Mark and Matthew (and tacks that on as a footnote because he found those statements odd yet worth preserving, and preserving verbatim because Eusebius didn’t know how to interpret them so left that to the reader).