One of the things I talked about at the Society of Biblical Literature conference in Notre Dame last weekend was the demise of a popular argument for the authenticity of the Testiminium Flavianum (that fawning paragraph about Jesus in the Jewish Antiquities of Josephus). This is a summary for a lay audience of that part of the story. I’ll write about my whole presentation in a following post. But this one issue is complicated enough to get its own treatment first.
Often when expert opinions are cited in favor of some form of the Testimonium having been written by Josephus (even if Christians later fixed it up), they are opinions based on the Arabic fragment and the ensuing argument of Shlomo Pines. But that theory was decisively refuted by Alice Whealey in 2008 (see my following article for bibliography). Therefore, all opinions that were based on the Pines thesis, are now null and void. They are not only uninformed, they were misinformed.
Here’s what happened. In an Arabic Chronicle by Agapius, written in the 10th century, the Testimonium gets quoted, yet in such a way that looks much less credulous, maybe more like what a Jew might have written. Pines argued that this must be an Arabic translation of an earlier manuscript tradition of the Antiquities than the one known to Eusebius (the first author ever to notice the passage existed in Josephus), and thus must reflect what Josephus really wrote, as it bypassed the meddling hand of Eusebius or whoever preceded him at the Library of Caesarea (where the manuscript of Josephus was produced that Eusebius used).

However, Alice Whealey proved, quite conclusively, that in fact Agapius was translating the Syriac edition not of Josephus, but of Eusebius. And it therefore certainly did not come from any earlier manuscript tradition untouched by Eusebius, but the very same one, in fact from Eusebius himself! Moreover, Agapius was translating this passage from the Syriac Chronicle of Theophilus (or some other Syriac Chronicle closely akin), written in the 8th century, the exact same text copied by Michael the Syrian in the 12th century in his own Syriac Chronicle. And though we don’t have Theophilus, we can tell from Michael that Theophilus’s text was essentially identical to the known Greek text of Eusebius’s quotation of the Testimonium in his copy of Josephus (but for one key difference I’ll get to in a moment). Agapius was therefore taking liberties, and altering the text in some way that suited him. His translation was thus not reliable, but more like a crude and speculative interpretation. His Arabic can no longer be used to argue for anything authentic appearing in the Antiquities.
Any opinion not aware of this finding, is uninformed and unciteable. It has no value. Unfortunately, that means most of the opinions anyone ever cites.
Now, Whealey may have destroyed the favorite prop experts once grasped to try and vindicate Josephus having mentioned Jesus. But she herself is fanatically dedicated to the Testimonium’s authenticity. So she tacked onto her findings regarding the Arabic, which were based on well-evidenced and sound argument, a new argument based in no evidence nor sound reasoning.
Whealey’s new defense of the Testimonium is an argument from improbability. But it’s not logically valid.
Every Greek text of the Testimonium declares Jesus “was the Christ,” a sentence no faithful Jew, much less Josephus, would ever utter of Jesus (long the clearest evidence the Testimonium is a Christian forgery). But the Syriac quoted by Michael declares Jesus “was believed to be the Christ,” a softer assertion that perhaps maybe a Jew like Josephus might write. This same emendation appears in the Latin translation of Jerome, written just half a century after Eusebius. Note, however, that in both cases, Jerome’s Latin and Michael’s Syriac are quotations of the early 4th century Church History by Eusebius, and not of any manuscript of Josephus. Yet they are eight hundred years apart. And Syriac writers were rarely influenced by Latin readings.
Accordingly, Whealey argues that it’s improbable that Jerome and Michael would both, independently, make this change (in each case deciding that surely Josephus, being a Jew, meant “was believed to be” rather than “was,” and maybe the text had become corrupted or misinterpreted—a thought process we know moved many a scribe to creatively “emend” the manuscripts they copied), and therefore, Whealey argues, that can’t have happened. The only other alternative, she claims, is that the original Greek of Eusebius must have read, in fact, “he was believed to be the Christ,” and that this original reading is preserved in two translations, the Latin of Jerome and the Syriac. And this explains why Michael’s Syriac text in the 12th century read that way—because he was copying from Theophilus, and Theophilus was copying from the 5th century Syriac translation of the Church History.
We don’t have Theophilus, so we can’t confirm how his text read. But we do have a few other manuscripts preserving readings from that 5th century Syriac translation of the Church History that he used…and they both say “he was the Christ.” Not “he was believed to be” as Whealey’s thesis requires. Hmmm. So Whealey’s thesis runs aground on two logical problems here that she doesn’t seem trained to deal with. And this is my own observation; no one has as yet published this, though I may do:
- First, if all possible explanations of the evidence are improbable, it is no longer logically valid to rule out a theory because it is improbable. Because then the one thing you know for sure is that the correct explanation is improbable. One has to, instead, compare the relative probability of the competing hypotheses. And in this case, all possible explanations are improbable.
- Whealey’s thesis is actually the least probable of all the possible explanations of the evidence. And that includes the explanation she rejects (that two unconnected authors coincidentally made the same emendation) but also explanations she overlooks (that both authors relied on a single corrupted text in common).
An example is concluding Joe won the lottery. That is always improbable. The probability that Joe, of all people, won the lottery is, let’s say, a million to one against. However, abundant evidence attests that he won. Newspaper announcements, state government records, his winning ticket receipt, his newfound wealth. That all that evidence was forged or in error is also improbable. In fact, it’s far more improbable—let’s say, a trillion to one against. That means that even though Joe’s winning the lottery is a million to one against, that he won is still a million times more likely than the only available alternative explanation of the evidence. And that means, all else being equal, the odds that Joe won the lottery are in fact a million to one in favor. Even though the odds of his winning the lottery were a million to one against. Whealey is acting like someone who argues against this by saying, “but, that Joe would win the lottery is improbable, so he can’t have won!” That’s logically invalid.

That two authors hundreds of years apart would come up with the same conjecture (that surely a Jewish author like Josephus meant “he was believed to be” and therefore that is a more accurate translation of the author’s intended meaning) may be improbable. But it’s not that improbable. Far more improbable is every other possible explanation of the evidence. For example, Whealey does not even consider this scenario (diagrammed at right): if one single manuscript of the Church History of Eusebius was emended in the Greek to “was believed to be,” perhaps by a scribe who assumed “he was” was surely a mistake, and that manuscript (or a descendant of it) was used by Jerome to make his translation, and a descendant of that manuscript was used to emend the Syriac translation in the 5th century (whose author we already know changed several other things from the earlier Syriac), then all the evidence is explained by positing only a single textual corruption in a single manuscript of a single book (the Church History of Eusebius), and one emendation based on it (in a translation we already know was emended in several ways).
That’s vastly more probable than what Whealey’s thesis requires: that Eusebius wrote “he was believed to be” because Josephus wrote that; and then someone altered a later manuscript of the Church History of Eusebius to say “he was,” and someone altered a later manuscript of the Theophany of Eusebius (which also quotes the Testimonium, and all manuscripts of which read “he was”), and someone altered a later manuscript of the Demonstration of the Gospel by Eusebius (which also quotes the Testimonium, and all manuscripts of which read “he was”), and someone altered a manuscript of the Jewish Antiquities of Josephus to say the same, and someone altered a manuscript of the 5th century Syriac translation of the Church History to say so as well, and by chance coincidence all these altered manuscripts are the only ones to have descendants today for us to consult, and yet somehow Theophilus or Michael had access to an unaltered textual tradition of that same 5th century Syriac translation, and yet somehow no surviving manuscripts attest to there being such a tradition. The odds against that are almost as astronomical as odds can get in mundane earthly affairs. Obviously, two guys centuries apart thinking up the same emendation is, even by itself, millions of times more likely. That they both relied on the same singular emended textual tradition, even more so.
And that’s not the only alternative. It’s entirely possible the reason all extant manuscripts of the Syriac translation of the Church History of Eusebius read “he was the Christ” and not “he was believed to be the Christ,” is that in fact that’s what it always said, because that’s what the Greek text the Syriac author was translating from said, because that’s what Eusebius wrote (because that’s what Josephus wrote). And what happened instead is that the single corruption in the Greek that Jerome used to translate his Latin from survived in descendants of that manuscript that were known to Michael (or Theophilus), and he (or Theophilus) used that corrupted Greek text to correct his text by (a common occurrence in ancient and medieval translation and transcription work). Then all the evidence is explained, including why all extant copies of the 5th century Syriac don’t agree with Michael’s, by positing only a single textual corruption in a single manuscript tradition of a single book (the Church History of Eusebius). Only one other ad hoc assumption is required: that Michael or Theophilus had access to a Greek manuscript of the Church History derived from that same corrupted manuscript translated by Jerome, and used it to emend his lift from Theophilus—or Theophilus used it to emend his lift from the Syriac translation of Eusebius (and Michael simply copied that).
That’s actually more likely than the alternative that the Syriac and Latin translated from a Greek text derived from a single corruption that changed “he was” to “he was believed to be.” Because that thesis requires two things to be assumed, each increasing the improbability: that someone later “fixed” the textual tradition of the Syriac to say “he was,” and that history gave us two other coincidences besides, that the “changed” text is the only version that survived in any manuscripts known today and that the other version (the one that produced no surviving ancestors) was nevertheless the one used by Michael or Theophilus. That the Syriac would be changed to match all extant Greek textual traditions (in three of Eusebius’s books and in the Antiquities of Josephus) and the surviving Syriac translation of a third book by Eusebius (in which he also quoted the Testimonium) is the same presumption that Michael or Theophilus did, so the improbabilities there are equal. And yet still I’d say that Michael and Jerome acting independently is more likely—because it requires none of all these added assumptions. And yet even those added assumptions are vastly more probable than the impossible managerie of coincidences, bordering on widespread conspiracy, that Whealey’s thesis requires.
It’s also worth adding that the extant Greek translation of Jerome (De Vir. Ill. 13) reads “was” and not “was believed to be.” Which means either Jerome’s Latin did not, in fact, originally say “believed to be,” or someone altered his Latin to say “was” (in some now-lost manuscript) or back-corrected their Greek translation of his Latin to match some other Greek manuscript (of Eusebius or Josephus) that said “was.” Since every possible explanation requires two emendations, it is no longer valid to say requiring two emendations makes any theory less probable than another. All theories require two emendations.
Summary
In 2008 Alice Whealey refuted the thesis that the Arabic fragment of the Testimonium supports its authenticity. It doesn’t. Because unlike what experts thought, the Arabic fragment does not come from Josephus at all. It comes from Eusebius, through the intermediary of a well-known Syriac translation of Eusebius.
Meanwhile, Whealey’s alternative proposal, that a massive conspiracy of altering five separate books, by two different authors in two different languages, exactly the same way, is so astronomically improbable it has no plausible chance of even being possible.
It’s vastly more likely the reason Jerome’s Latin and Michael’s (or Theophilus’s) copy of the Syriac translation of the Church History of Eusebius both say “he was believed to be the Christ” is that two smart scholars out of the hundreds dealing with this text over the course of nearly a thousand years both independently had the same notion that surely Josephus meant that, and so they “interpreted” the text that way when they translated it (just as modern Bible translations in English “interpret” all kinds of things in ways not exactly matching the literal text).
It’s even vastly more likely (if not as much) that the reason is that Jerome and Michael (or Theophilus) were referencing a corrupted Greek text of the Church History, caused by a single scribal emendation or mistake in a single manuscript of Eusebius in the mid-4th century.
It’s even vastly more likely (if not nearly as much) that the reason is that Jerome and the 5th century Syriac translator whose edition was used by Theophilus (and thus Michael) were translating from a corrupted Greek text of the Church History, caused by a single scribal emendation or mistake in a single manuscript of Eusebius in the mid-4th century (and someone then “corrected” later copies of that Syriac translation to match the more widely extant Greek that read “he was”).
All three hypotheses are vastly more likely than Whealey’s. And all of them establish that Eusebius did not write “he was believed to be the Christ,” nor ever read such words in any manuscript of Josephus known to him. Whealey would notice this if she had learned the logic of probability, and understood that “x is improbable, therefore x is false” is invalid—the same fallacy as asserting “Joe winning the lottery is improbable, therefore Joe didn’t win the lottery.” What matters is not whether the explanation is improbable. But what it’s probability is relative to all possible alternative explanations of the evidence.
And people still wonder why historians need to learn Bayes’ Theorem already?
-:-
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Update: I’ve made several corrections to the text of this article for improved accuracy. And added a paragraph about the Greek translation of Jerome.
The matter of accuracy was to be clearer and more precise about how a corruption in a single Greek manuscript would explain both Jerome’s Latin and only one Syriac tradition containing that corruption. There are many actual ways that can have happened (from the one lost but clearly aberrant Syriac Chronicler making his many emendations to the Syriac by checking the earlier Syriac translations against his own available Greek exemplar—which would then be a descendant of the exemplar used by Jerome—to that Chronicler having a Syriac manuscript that contained a marginal note on this same point and then incorporating that variant into his own edition; and many other possibilities beyond), but digressing on everye one would be tedious, and unnecessary to the point here established.
Hi Richard!
I believe you could add one additional detail. There is also an Armenian translation of Eusebius’ Ecclesiastical History made in the early fifth century by Mesrop Mashtots (died in 441) from the Syriac translation, which therefore must have been available already at that time. The Armenian version reads: ”∙Քրիստոս իսկ է նա.” I don’t know Armenian but Քրիստոս means Christ; իսկ means and, but, moreover, as in this case indeed, truly; է is a verb, then the third person singular present tense of եմ, i.e. is; նա means he, she or it. Accordingly it says: “Christ indeed is he”, or rather: ”he is indeed/truly Christ/Messiah.” This translation is confirmed in personal letters by Robert Bedrosian who writes: “The literal sense of the sentence is this: ‘Indeed, He is the one who is the Christ.’”; and by Bert Vaux who writes: “I would translate it literally as ‘he is indeed Christ’.”
I’m a lay person but I think we are severely underestimating another scenario. Scenario 3 not included in image 2.
…that a scribe of Eusebius’ CH altered his manuscript of Church Histories from an original reading of JA… to “he was the Christ” and this single manuscript, similar to your theory of the Syriac, was copied by multiple scribes, but diverging from your theory, eventually (intentionally) gained more popularity that the (now impossible to determine) originals surrounding it. (Jerome’s Latin and Michael’s Syriac being *attempts* to produce something akin to or claiming to be the original.
I say this because even the writing of CH at the time it was written, by a Religious, and Political leader of the time. His office now (newly) endorsed by the Emperor. writing as soon as the religion had just been endorsed and promoted by Constantine… I would say written in response to this. for the reasons below:
1)the timing of his writing coinciding exactly with Constantine’s conversion.
2)the first appearance of a “Church Histories” (regardless of it’s author) as a direct parallel (even in the author’s eyes) to the many Official “Histories” written by High ranking political, civil and military officials during earlier pagan times…
3) all to varying degrees, these “Histories, were purposely written during the reigns of moderate emperors to ensure survival of any controversial contents.
I think evidence points to a Eusebius who anticipated the triumph of Constantine’s religion over the state… and specifically aspired to have his work remembered, then, as the first of many, state sanctioned histories of the Church.
with this in mind any of his scribes (or anyone else, a higher authority or in an extreme scenario even Eusebius himself) in pandering to the Authorities has more than enough incentive specifically from the 380 Edict, to embellish an original JA with Christian censorship for Eusebius’ CH. after all the work itself is called “Christian Histories” .
That’s ruled out by the same words being in all three separate books of Eusebius. So your scenario requires someone to have hunted down all the manuscripts of each of the other two books and changed them all to agree with the change made to one manuscript of CH (and then of course they had to police every existing manuscript of CH as well to ensure only the one with their reading survived there as well). That’s simply too improbable to be anywhere near as, much less more than, probable as the far simpler scenarios discussed.
HI. I actually realized after rereading your article, the other two books (D.E and Th) would logically have to be policed similarly to CH making my scenario much (much) more unlikely and difficult. I’ll gladly abandon it. However I had said this because exactly zero writers before Eusebius are known to have quoted T.F. from Antiquities. Which will remain incredibly fishy to me even with the unlikelihood of my scenario of why that is. another explanation as to why we don’t have any known Christian apologist who used T.F. in any other work is then needed to explain this apparent lack of evidence before Eusebius. Is it at all possible the readers of JA before Eusebius all read the same thing as Eusebius but interpreted it differently than him (I.E. interpreting “He was the Christ” as a Naming convention. Similar to CH20’s “James, the brother of Jesus *who was called Christ*”) to distinguish him from the other Jesuses (many) he discusses…
Origen’s quotation of JA. CH20.. while not quoting CH18 and even expressly saying Josephus did not believe Jesus was the Christ.
I find these three most likely concerning Origen.
1) Either he read the current JA we have and interpreted it differently.. or he read something without a T.A. at all (he goes out of his way, as a Christian wrier in 250s to mention, in relation to Jesus… a passage on JAMES his brother! omitting completely any other apparently existing passage in JA on Jesus during his time) or with a T.A. section much different to anything we can now guess.
To Clarify. my different interpretation theory posits if they DID have TA as we have it. they likely interpreted “He was the Christ” and “who was called Christ” in similar fashion i.e. solely to distinguish him from the other Jesuses.
I don’t understand your qualification.
The question is what they did have.
Which we can tell from extant evidence was not that. Because for there to have been that, it should show up in Eusebius’s other two books (among other indications).
No I’m agreeing they most likely have it as we have it. And I was just going into why I think that may be. I was just asking since it’s most likely Eusebius and Origen both had what we have in TA and is it possible read it as a Naming convention for Christ. Hence Arriving at the conclusion that Josephus didn’t believe Jesus was the Christ. Despite both of them reading TA saying “He was the Christ”. If Origen and everyone around him had TA as we have but took “He was the Christ” as literally just a name distinguishing one Jesus “The Christ” from other Jesuses “not the Christ”
Then it explains the presence of TA even while author not believing he actually was what his popular name said he was. That name being “Jesus, the Christ”. hence the original having “He was the Christ” solely intended as a name….* and not as a statement of Faith/a Testimony. I hope I’m making sense here. Which would explain why 1) the majority of evidence points to an original which had the TA. While 2) at the same Time Origen ignoring it and Stating Josephus didn’t believe Jesus was the Christ.
So, you’ve lost me. TA? Do you mean TF?
If so, that was not in Origen. It shows up in the JA sometime after Origen but in the same library, so likely inserted by Pamphilus (his successor) or Eusebius himself (his successor). Besides my peer reviewed studies, see now my remarks here and here.
As far as your theory, it’s too confusing as described. I might need a diagram showing the development sequence you have in mind.
Seperate topic.
Id also like to know if you have textual criticism experience and can explain why manuscript dates differ from proposed dates of (original) composition? And how that difference is calculated and why different people calculate both dates differently? Would AI not be more accurate in comparing texts to others to ascertain a date? And is this comparison to other dated similar manuscripts the only means of producing an “earliest/latest possible date of composition”?
Yes. I studied paleography under Leonardo Taran at Columbia. And likewise a year of papyrology with Roger Bagnall. Very valuable training.
To your questions:
1) The formal parlance distinguishes “text” from “manuscript.” The latter is an instantiation of a text. The former is the hypothetical sequence of words that presumably was composed at some time and each manuscript preserves a (possibly edited and often erroneous) copy of a copy of a copy of a…of one of the original ones that would have been copied at original publication.
The autograph, first text put to papyrus or parchment, often from a wax tablet draft, would be first, but then immediately dozens of copies would be made by slaves or scribes to disseminate, and those could already have errors in them, and that would be the first generation of the text, after that copies of them, then copies of those copies, etc.
So, when historians date a text, they are trying to estimate when the text was composed; but when they date a manuscript they are dating when that physical copy was made, i.e. when ink was put to it. Which can be decades or centuries after the original text was composed, and rarely to never from the first run. Every ms. we have is many copying steps removed from the originals; indeed, they are at least one whole editing stage removed (see Three Things and Trobisch).
2) Why dates disagree: because no actual date stamp exists on any of it. No NT text says when it was composed. And no ancient manuscript says when ink was put to it (some medieval mss. do but that’s not common). So we have to guess based on a principle of of terminus ante and post quem: the latest it could have happened, and the earliest it could have happened, between which it could have happened any time, but often scholars will pick the midrange as most likely, on the assumption that it’s statistically more likely in the middle than either end, but that’s not very reliable thinking.
This results in several outcomes: first, apologists want to invent and push everything to an over-early date, so you have to weed through bullshit to find a reliable, objective, fact-based, mainstream dating; second, facts change over time (we learn new things, catch things we missed, new techniques and examples come to light), so dates change over time (and apologists often use decades old scholarship and avoid using the most recent and thus most reliable results, and even non-apologists are unaware of updates in the field and thus report old dates mistakenly); third, disagreements still exist over when to park each terminus, and where in between is “most likely” or if even any is; and finally, really, we should be reporting the most evidence-based terminus as “before then” and not speculate beyond that, and this results in the latest dates being reported, but usually with careful qualifiers (like “before 120” rather than “around 120”), so you have to pay close attention to wording, and telephone games often strip that careful wording out resulting in a misreported date.
For texts, the process is complicated and varies with the evidence available.
For manuscripts, almost always it’s done by script style (the handwriting), based on the observation that scribal school trends changed over time, and you can date a manuscript that way. However, it’s just as inaccurate as carbon dating (+/-50 years or +/-25 at best), and has been “gamed” by apologists requiring corrections over time, where apologists will “claim” the handwriting matches a certain period when, objectively, it does not, or there are too few letters on a scrap to even be claiming to know the style of the writing at all. This is well discussed in Nongbri’s God’s Library where he scolds apologists for this and redates a lot of manuscripts with objective methods, and sometimes Wikipedia has caught up, sometimes it hasn’t, so you will see old dates or new dates, or even really old dates, when only the latest most objectively determined dates should be used.
3) AI is garbage and can never reliably do any of this. When run in bots, it just regurgitates the contradictory bullshit online. When run in isolation on some sort of data metric, it hallucinates and errs a lot, and can’t correctly explain its reasoning (it literally invents a chain of thought on request, which is not the actual evidence or reasoning it used), and always has to be vetted and corrected by expert humans anyway. So there is no way for AI to improve on expert humans in this task. Humans have to identify their objective evidence and why the conclusion follows from it. Only humans know how to do that. AI faking it doesn’t cut it.
4) No extant ms. for the NT is old enough to even be close to date of composition, so dating mss. is never helpful for dating the texts they contain. It’s useful in some extra-biblical cases only.
I’ll add that AI is helping to read ambiguous text on the Herculaneum papyri, but that would be of no use for dating. All it is doing is trying to come up with the most plausible words to fit a string of damaged marks on a burnt papyrus. And even then experts have to “check its work” and fix its mistakes. So all it really does is speed up the guessing game, so experts can skip a certain percentage of false starts and thus do the work faster. But AI could never do the work by itself.