After ten years of pretty much ignoring the arguments in the peer-reviewed studies on the question of Jesus’s historicity, Bart Ehrman has tried again to “respond” to their findings—and again proves he never really reads these studies and doesn’t know what they say. Indeed, he is stalwartly refusing now to read the actual studies and is only doing a video critique of my popmarket summary. Like an amateur. And he is getting everything even in that wrong. Which is a spectacular own goal. This is practically the Platonic ideal of the entire field’s response to our studies to date: punching themselves in the face. It’s like they don’t even realize people actually check things—so they’re going to find out every mistake Ehrman made. Which simply burns his rep as anyone worth trusting on the subject.
Catching Up
Ehrman’s two new articles, Why I Don’t Enjoy Reading the Mythicists and Fundamentalist Apologists: Christian and Mythicist, are void of any discernible factual arguments (they just complain about how reading peer-reviewed monographs is too hard to do and we’re all just crazy). But his weekend lecture (which mostly consisted of just him reading his slideshow) was a long farce of armchair mistakes, getting even basic facts wrong. Since pretty much everything he now says was already refuted ten years ago in the books he won’t read, I won’t go into detail, but just summarize his mistakes and cite where they are already refuted. And since he makes no response to those refutations (nor to anything in my Ehrman on Historicity Recap), his current claims are already dead in the water. He hasn’t recovered them from already being proved wrong. He’s just repeating false claims. Which tells you enough to know you simply can’t trust him as an authority on this question—he literally doesn’t know what he’s talking about.
And this is what I mean by that: Ehrman never references, or seems to know what is in, the formal studies of Carrier or Lataster, even though Lataster’s study, published by Brill, is specifically a critique of Ehrman’s still-only book on this subject (which came out before our studies and thus is not a response to them); and even though my study specifically refutes the claims Ehrman is now making—already, ten years ago. Instead, he inexplicably only responds to my pop-market summary, even though that won’t contain any of the scholarly details he needs in order to vet the statements made there (those are referenced through its concordance to the original study—its version of footnotes, ignoring which is tantamount to ignoring all the footnotes). This is not the behavior of a professional, or anyone taking this seriously. It’s as if I tried to prove Ehrman is wrong about something in Forged without consulting the very excellent formal study it merely summarizes, Forgery and Counterforgery. Ehrman knows that would be inappropriate, and he would be incensed if someone did that. Well, then, he should be angry with himself that he did that to us. While for you the question remains, that you now have to ask: Why did he do this?
If historicity really is defensible, why can’t it stand up against the formal studies refuting it? Why does Ehrman have to avoid those, and try to critique only a summary? This does not make the historicity of Jesus look defensible. It makes it look like it’s indefensible, “therefore” something has to be done to hide that fact, by avoiding every solid critique, and beating down only straw men. This is why he conceals the fact that over forty scholars now agree mythicism is plausible, acting instead like it’s just a handful of us.
1. Yes, Paul Believed Jesus Was a Human
It’s all the worse that Ehrman doesn’t even read the pop-market summary competently. As a recurring case in point, his slides and lecture keep saying our theory is that Jesus was not “human,” and therefore evidence, for example, that Paul believed he was “human” refutes our theory. We are quite thoroughly explicit that our thesis is that Jesus was human—indeed, a mortal, Jewish man—when he was killed in the sky. So Ehrman doesn’t even know what our theory is. How then can he have anything competent to say as to its merits? This would be like me critiquing Ehrman for defending the Gospels as reliable history, as if I didn’t know that is not what he argues (he agrees they are mostly myth). Wouldn’t he be annoyed if I did that? So why is he doing it to me? Did he abandon the Golden Rule along with his Christian faith?
This mistake I already dealt with years ago in Can Paul’s Human Jesus Not Be a Celestial Jesus? But it was already dispatched in our books. In OHJ (pp. 532–33):
[T]he only facts constituting Christian belief [at the start were] that Jesus is now Lord because he was given a human body formed of Davidic seed and then appointed to supreme heavenly authority at his resurrection (which presupposes his death). This is all compatible with minimal mythicism.
And yet in Paul:
We’re not told how anyone knew that, or who his parents were, or where he was born, or anything
else that would make this a definite statement of earthly existence in human history (and not, e.g., just a doctrine of heavenly incarnation).
Paul says Jesus was made “like” a human (Philippians 2), not “was” a human, but we agree he means “in order to die Jesus had to be clothed in a human body,” a “flesh-and-blood body to abuse and kill” (p. 570; cf. pp. 547, 575, 592, etc.). And that body was indeed from the flesh of David (JFOS §8; OHJ §11.9). Hence we differ from Ehrman solely on where this happened, not whether they thought it did happen: minimal mythicism proposes an “incarnation, death, burial and resurrection in a supernatural realm” (p. 53). This is explained very early in JFOS: “He was imagined to have descended from the farthest reaches of outer space to assume a human body” (p. 31; cf. pp. 172–73, 204). The fact that Ehrman doesn’t know this indicts him as not competent to judge our theory. He could have been competent to do that—he has the competence to do this competently—he just chose not to. Why?
Since we do not argue what Ehrman is “rebutting,” that “rebuttal” has no effect on our theory. All the evidence he cites here doesn’t apply to us. The question is why he doesn’t know that.
2. Yes, An Imaginary Jesus Preached Things
Ehrman does the same ignorant thing again when he argues Jesus “preached” things (Paul even quotes him!), “therefore” Jesus existed. But we already refuted that a decade ago (JFOS, pp. 147–50, 184; summarizing OHJ, §11.6–7). Even after we eliminate all the “sayings” and “instructions” that were invented later (often by ascribing to Jesus the teachings of other people, like Paul, or even by outright fabrication, like all the speeches in the Gospel of John, and even, as mainstream scholars agree, most of the Sermon on the Mount: OHJ, pp. 465-68), Paul says he received sayings from revelation, not a historical Jesus. He even quotes a conversation with Jesus he personally had in his head, as if it were real.
So we cannot argue from a quoted saying to “it came from a historical man.” We can’t argue that even if Jesus existed. Moreover we have abundant evidence that the earliest Christians believed Jesus spoke to them not only through direct revelation, but also through the scriptures (see The Original Scriptural Concept of ‘The Lord’ Jesus). So we have no way of getting from “there were sayings” to “they came from a real person.” Paul simply never says any of them came from Jesus before he died, much less from anyone who sat at his feet. Hence our point is that this is evidence that does not exist. Ehrman has not responded to this refutation. He just keeps repeating the false claim that we have evidence that these sayings came from a real person. But we don’t. So he is just ignoring the facts. Why?
This is just a circular argument. And experts are supposed to know better than to rely on those.
3. Yes, The Eucharist Sounds Like a Revelation
We already gave evidence that Paul’s description of Christ’s inauguration of the Eucharist came by a vision, not a real event. And many experts agree with us on this—in fact more now. I’ll bring this up in my next book, The Obsolete Paradigm of a Historical Jesus, going to press now and due this Fall, but just off the top of my head, those who agree it’s likely ahistorical include: Gerd Lüdemann, Robert Funk, Marcus Borg, Leon Morris, Clarence Craig, Hyam Maccoby, Paul Achtemeier, Helmut Koester, Nikolaus Walter, Francis Watson—and Afetame Alabi, authoring the very best case to date, and citing fifteen more scholars concurring; and to that of course we must add the dozens scholars who agree Jesus might not have existed. So Ehrman is the one falsely reporting the state of this question. Why?
There is no need to rehash that. Ehrman simply ignores it all and thus keeps asserting things already refuted, without recovering them from that refutation. He doesn’t even mention, much less answer, all our evidence for this being a revelation that Paul is describing and not a real event. But if you care what the evidence is, you can catch up on what Ehrman is ignoring in OHJ §11.7 (referenced in JFOS, pp. 48, 131, 193). Or check out Alabi or my forthcoming study. The bottom line is that Ehrman cannot establish the contrary—so at best we cannot claim to know whether Paul here means revelation and not history. And that’s that.
4. Yes, Paul Shows No Knowledge of a Human Betrayal
Paul never says Jesus was “betrayed.” He repeatedly says he was “handed over” by God, not men. Ehrman agrees with me on that. Yet he still lists this as evidence for an earthly Jesus. But there is no indication Paul had ever heard of this being an earthly event. There’s no Judas killing himself, for example (the “twelve” are still intact to receive a vision of Jesus after Peter: JFOS, pp. 67–68; OHJ, pp. 312–14, 324–25, 560; and Proving History, pp. 151–55). This is again ‘evidence for historicity’ that simply does not exist (see Did Judas Exist?). We cannot tell that any story of human betrayal or earthly deliverance was known to Paul.
5. Yes, 1 Thessalonians 2:14–16 Is Probably Fake
The preponderance of evidence establishes these verses were inserted by someone after Paul died. Even at best, the evidence is enough to not be sure Paul wrote them, which alone removes them as evidence. And yet we can be even more certain than that (JFOS, pp. 44; OHJ, pp. 567–69). There is even more evidence of this than I mention in There Is No Logically Sound Case Against Interpolation in 1 Thessalonians 2. Yet Ehrman simply ignores all of it.
But…why are we ignoring evidence in this debate? And why is it always the historicists who are ignoring evidence in this debate? Ehrman does not even tell his students that this passage is widely doubted in the field. He appears to be concealing evidence, rather than arguing against it. Why? And why would you trust someone who repeatedly does this to you?
6. Yes, Crucifixion Was Not Distinctly Roman
This is fully established by literally all the peer reviewed scholarship on the words for crucifixion. And I cite it all, so Ehrman has no excuse not to have consulted it so as to know what he is talking about (OHJ, pp. 61–62, 534, where I and they adduce a ton of evidence of Jewish and other non-Roman crucifixions). Instead Ehrman just keeps making the already-refuted argument that Paul and his congregations can only have understood a crucifixion by Romans (see Things Fall Apart Only When You Check). This is again simply not evidence. So why is he still using it? Worse, like an internet amateur, Ehrman doesn’t even know I cited leading scholarship on this—so it is not some “mistake” I made. It is literally the consensus of every expert who has written studies on this point. He is the one who is mistaken.
Ehrman also falsely claims I base the Jewish practice of crucifying the convicted entirely on one passage in Deuteronomy. He also gets wrong what that passage says. Ehrman declares “it’s not part of the Jewish law anywhere that says victims of stoning have to be crucified.” Well, foot in mouth, sir. Mishnah law (Sanhedrin 6.4)—actual Jewish law, which I (and all scholars on this) quote to the point—explicitly says it is. So Ehrman is the one making factual mistakes here, demonstrating that he literally knows nothing about the evidence and scholarship on this, and didn’t even lift a single finger to find out. He just declared me wrong from the armchair. Like a crank.
Ehrman’s reading of the verse in Deuteronomy is also wrong. You can check the original Hebrew yourself. It says any man convicted of a capital crime is to be crucified, because the conjunctive vav in legal texts implies an imperative, not a conditional (making the LXX conjunctions consequential rather than conditional). This is why Rashi outright says Deuteronomy instructs “thou shalt” hang such people, and therefore “all those who have to be put to death by stoning must afterwards be hanged.” Ramban concurs. Chizkuni concurs. The Talmud concurs (Sanhedrin 46b). And on and on. Ehrman is simply wrong.
But the real question you have to ask is: why didn’t Ehrman check before confidently declaring a falsity like this, thereby falsely impugning me of error? If he had checked OHJ like a competent scholar is supposed to, then he’d have seen my citations of Samuelsson, Halperin, Fitzmyer—even my own study of Jewish burial law—and thus realized I’m simply following the experts on this. And if he still doubted all this, he could check those studies, and would then have found that the evidence proving him wrong here includes Mishnah law, Talmudic law, Rabbinical commentaries, historical and vocabulary studies, even Josephus (“Let him who blasphemes God be stoned to death and hung during the day,” AJ 4.202).
Update: Prepare to be outraged. While researching another matter I discovered the fact that Ehrman himself not only admitted the Jews “sometimes” performed executions “by crucifixion” (“Jesus’ Trial Before Pilate,” Biblical Theology Bulletin 1983, p. 125), he even cited two scholars confirming this (C.K. Barrett and Jean Juster). So he knows what he claimed in his recent class is false.
7. Yes, We Have Evidence of Doubting Christians (Yet Didn’t Expect Any)
I make an even stronger case for this point in my book due out this Fall (extensively expanding on my preliminary findings in Did ‘Docetism’ Really Even Exist?), but I already addressed it ten years ago:
- We don’t expect Christians to have preserved any text doubting or challenging the historicity of Jesus. So we cannot argue from the absence of them now. Yet we do have hints that there were Christians who had not heard of an earthly Jesus and even protested the idea (OHJ §8.12).
- Paul would not mention this because the idea that Jesus was earthly did not exist yet for him to react to. So it is illogical of Ehrman to cite Paul’s silence, much less to expect us to have Paul saying “Jesus was crucified in space,” since had he ever written that, it would have been omitted from all editions we have access to. But he would be unlikely ever to have to written it, since everyone he was writing to already knew that, and no one existed yet who was contesting it.
- And Paul’s letters are indeed rife with evidence he himself had never heard the contrary (OHJ §11).
None of which evidence Ehrman even mentions, much less rebuts (and yet he should know we have it: JFOS, pp. 33, 49, 157, 160–63, 170, 179; OHJ §11). He is again simply repeating an argument we already refuted. And he’s just ignoring that it was refuted.
Why does defending historicity require ignoring all the evidence against it and pretending—indeed even falsely claiming—it does not exist? Ask yourself that. Again.
8. Yes, The Talmud and Epiphanius Attest a Different Chronology
Jewish Christianity in the East appears to have placed Jesus a hundred years earlier than Western Christians. This is a fact, not a factual “error” (OHJ §8.1). Attempts to claim otherwise I refute in my forthcoming Obsolete Paradigm. But the data is already available to anyone. It’s not something I made up. Ehrman just “claims” (without any explanation or evidence) that I am “misreading” the Talmud and Epiphanius, but I already disprove that in the study he is supposed to be answering (just more so in the sequel). He never responds to any of the evidence I present.
Ehrman first confuses himself here. His slides correctly quote JFOS as saying 75 BC (the time of Alexander Jannaeus in which the Babylonian Talmud, and Jewish Christians in the same region according to Epiphanius, placed the execution of Jesus) is “almost a hundred years before the Romans even took control of Judea” (though Ehrman leaves out the rest of that sentence: “and a full hundred years before Pontius Pilate was put in charge of it”). Ehrman wonders if this is a typo because 75 BC + 100 would get 25 AD (actually 24 AD), but live, in the lecture, he misread the quote, skipping the word “almost.” The Romans took over Judea in 6 AD, which is over 80 years later, which is indeed “almost” 100 years, as I make clear by noting a “full” 100 years then brings us to the time of Pilate (in the 20s AD). Ehrman’s mistake here evinces a lazy carelessness that typifies his entire approach to this subject and its scholarship. Ehrman even calls this a factual mistake—but I’m the one who is correct. The factual mistake is his.
That’s a trivial example, but still illustrative (he should not be making a mistake like that). But there is a far more important example: Ehrman also misstates my position as “the original Christians in Jerusalem…believed that Jesus was crucified in 75 BC,” but that’s not my position: my position (if he had ever actually read it) is that there were later Christians who believed that (we have this confirmed by two independent sources: that’s why we believe Epiphanius on this, because he describes the exact same group attacked in the Talmud, so they corroborate each other). And that does not necessarily mean the “original” Christians, but only some Christians of the second or third generation—possibly even later, but early enough to evince a liberality of when to place Jesus in history that is only likely if there was no actual history (like our revered Gospels) constraining their choice. I also have no idea why he thinks any of this involved “Jerusalem” Christians—we’re talking about Christians across the Jordan (JFOS, p. 12).
Ehrman thus doesn’t even understand the argument he is supposed to be responding to. Yet ironically (in Reading the Mythicists) he blames our having too many facts for him to check as his reason for not checking them. But he can’t even get right a single page of our ideas. “Original” Christians? No. “Jerusalem” Christians. No. That some Christians changed the century Jesus died “disproves” historicity? No. We made none of these claims. So why does he think these are the claims we made? Indeed, supposedly, the “only” claims we made!
Ehrman also doesn’t know what Epiphanius said, or why historians agree the Talmud also dates Jesus to the 70s B.C., referencing the same sect as Epiphanius (ideologically and geographically). And he also does not appear to understand the difference between Jewish Christianity (Nazorianism) and Gentile Christianity (Ehrman also misspells Nazorians as Nazareans, confusing a different sect Epiphanius talks about, the Nasareans). And he does not appear to understand why the Babylonian Rabbis would be keen to debunk only an immediate Jewish threat to their faith—hence why they never mention the Gospel Jesus or its chronology, only this completely different one, because it was the one poaching their turf.
You might be starting to notice that not knowing what he is talking about is a growing theme here. And now he explicitly admits this is because there is “too much” peer-reviewed literature to read. But if the historicity of Jesus can only be maintained by not knowing what you are talking about, maybe it’s time to stop believing in it?
On top of all that, somehow Ehrman mistakes me for arguing all this did happen in the 70s BC, and thus Paul wrote in the 50s BC (and then argues against those ideas). But I have never argued either of those things (see How Do We Know the Apostle Paul Wrote His Epistles in the 50s A.D.?). My argument is that the looseness with which later mythographers could date Jesus is (weak) evidence he wasn’t historical (for reasons I lay out in OHJ §8.1, none of which Ehrman mentions or responds to—because he keeps refusing to read the actual study). In other words, my position is: “Maybe the Eastern gospel that placed Jesus under Jannaeus is just as fabricated as the Western gospel placing him under Pilate” (JFOS, p. 13).
So why does Ehrman think I argue Paul wrote in the 50s BC? Or that Paul’s Jesus was killed in the 70s BC? I can’t fathom. This looks like another gradeschool failure at reading comprehension—confusing my reporting a mere possibility with what I think is actually the case—more evidence of Bart Ehrman’s egregious carelessness as a scholar that casts his entire judgment into doubt; just like when he falsely claims I said the verb ginomai “doesn’t mean born” when in fact I said it “can mean” that (JFOS, p. 162, 173), and in result Ehrman ignores and thus never mentions or answers what I actually argue about that.
This constant stream of disinformation about what I do or don’t say or argue is one of the reasons you should conclude Ehrman is completely unreliable on this subject.
9. Yes, Paul Never Mentions Anyone Seeing Jesus Before He Died
Ehrman asks you to read the text. So, read it:
Now, brothers and sisters, I want to remind you of the gospel I preached to you, which you received and on which you have taken your stand. By this gospel you are saved, if you hold firmly to the word I preached to you. Otherwise, you have believed in vain. For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, ** and then ** he appeared to Cephas, and then to the Twelve [etc.] (1 Cor. 15)
Honestly. Mic drop, I guess? Paul also omits any “preaching” of Jesus before his death in Romans 16:15–26 (the preaching of Jesus comes only from revelation and scripture) and Romans 10:14–15 (only Apostles ever heard Jesus preach, not the people: and Apostles are elected by revelation: Galatians 1, 1 Cor. 9:1). And so on. This is all in the study Ehrman is ignoring (OHJ, §11). He’s literally just ignoring all the data. Instead, Ehrman fails at reading comprehension and confuses “Paul never says anyone saw Jesus before he died” with “Paul says no one saw Jesus before he died,” refutes the latter (which I never said) and doesn’t understand that that cannot refute the former. Why?
10. Yes, The Church Controlled Almost All Document Selection
This is so mainstream a fact it is astonishing to see Ehrman try denying it. The exceptions he lists actually prove the rule—as I already discuss in my study that he still won’t read (and that he thus doesn’t know he has to reply to now: OHJ §8.4, 8.3, 8.12; likewise Element 22, pp. 148–52). Where are the documents of the doubting opponents of 2 Peter and Ignatius? Golly. All gone. Where are the letters of Paul that Paul refers to but we don’t have? What did they cut between 1 Cor. 8 and 1 Cor. 9? And so on. The list of conveniently missing stuff that we know existed is quite long.
Ehrman also goofs again here, misquoting JFOS as saying “only” when in fact it said “nearly the only” writings that survived were controlled by the imperial Church (p. 33), thus concealing from his students that I actually discussed the very documents he presents, as if I forgot about them. I even point this out (because I’m psychic!): “One might object and say, ‘Well, they didn’t destroy the collection at Nag Hammadi’. But the collection at Nag Hammadi is late” etc. (JFOS, p. 167). Which makes this argument from Ehrman a textbook example of disinformation. And if you have to use disinformation to win an argument, you have already lost that argument.
The rare few things that escaped destruction (such as by hiding them in a pot at Nag Hammadi) are mostly later texts, scant, and none of the stuff Ignatius and 2 Peter were talking about. And not a single item from the first hundred years of the religion. You cannot argue from the silence of documents you don’t have. And Ehrman does not have any of the first century documents that the surviving Church didn’t want him to. So he cannot make assertions about what they “didn’t” say. The fact is, the only stuff from then that survives is what was chosen and edited by the same historicist Christians who later took over the Empire and outlawed all heresy (the one undeniable fact documented by many experts now). That even includes things Paul wrote: everything he wrote that they didn’t like, we don’t have (like his actual first letter to the Corinthians).
Frankly this is a dumb apologetic hill for a modern scholar to die on. So I don’t know why he’s doing it.
11. No, Paul Never Refers to Anyone Being a Disciple
Paul does not know Peter (or anyone) is a disciple. He believes Peter is, instead, an Apostle, one who received election by revelation (1 Cor. 15, 1 Cor. 9, Gal. 1). There are no disciples in Paul’s letters. To simply assume some apostles he refers to are disciples is a circular argument. Which is not a serious argument. It’s disingenuous apologetics. Why do we need disingenuous apologetics to defend historicity, but do not need it to defend mythicism? Once again, ask yourself.
12. No, The Word “Ministry” Is Not in Romans 15
This is the biggest face-palm. Ehrman actually claims that Romans 15:8 (the 5:8 on his slide is a typo) has Paul say Jesus “ministered” to the Jews, as in a Gospel “ministry.” It does not. As anyone who checked a reliable translation would know: those all say “servant” rather than “minister” for a reason. Because the word is deacon, which means attendant, not “preacher.” Ehrman would know this if he would read the actual study he is supposed to be responding to. I have a whole page on this (OHJ, pp. 571–72): “It means (in this context) doing God’s will,” probably “by relaying God’s will.”
In other words, Paul is talking about the fact that Christ’s revelation came first to the Jews (1 Cor. 15, Gal. 1; Romans 9:33). That does not require an actual earthly ministry, as we already noted above. To the contrary, Paul appears to believe it means a celestial one (revelation): hence only the Apostles (“those sent,” apostelein, the verbal form of the noun) heard Jesus preach, not “the Jews.” The Jews could only hear it if those Apostles preached it to them, because Jesus, evidently, did not (Romans 10:14–15: OHJ, p. 554, 572). So there is, again, no evidence here. Paul simply does not say Jesus preached to anyone other than by revelation, much less before his death (his “ministering” to the Jews began after that).
This is another example of scholars forgetting to check their own Bible before quoting it, and thus being duped by Christian apologetical translations rather than reading what the text actually says in the Greek. Ehrman is supposed to know better. That he doesn’t is why he is still (by his own choice and behavior) not qualified to have a credible opinion on this topic.
13. No, Paul Does Not Mention That Happening on Earth
Ehrman claims that Paul says Jesus was on Earth in Philippians 2:5–8 (check: no such thing is ever said there), Galatians 4:4 (nope), and in Hebrews (nope: OHJ §11.5), even 1 Peter (nope: §11.3). He then cites 2 Peter. A known, late forgery. Why he is citing that as evidence escapes me. Even he knows that can’t count as evidence here—because it’s fake. But you know what that fake letter is evidence of? Christians who were denying the historical Jesus it stumps for (OHJ, p. 351). The very thing Ehrman said didn’t exist. Oops. He should have read the study he intended to rebut! I say more about this in Obsolete Paradigm, because there is even more triangulating evidence for this than I have previously documented, which I present there. But this point was already made in OHJ.
14. No, Tacitus & Josephus Are Not Usable Evidence
Neither probably ever mentioned Jesus (the evidence is quite strong that they didn’t, and Ehrman never addresses any of that evidence: see Josephus on Jesus and Blom on the Testimonium Taciteum and Margaret Williams on Early Classical Authors on Jesus).
But the more pertinent point is that even if they did, that is of no use to us, because neither can be established to be independent of the Gospels (OHJ §7.1, §8.9–10), and so they cannot corroborate them. And a lot of mainstream scholars agree with me on this now: see Margaret Williams and even, by the gods now, Chrissy Hansen—oh, and Ehrman himself, who said “the information” in Tacitus “is not particularly helpful in establishing that there really lived a man named Jesus” because he was just repeating post-Gospel Christian “hearsay” (Did Jesus Exist, pp. 54–56), exactly my own point; and he says the same of Josephus, who for the same reason “does not ultimately matter” as evidence (pp. 64–65), yet Ehrman does not tell his students in his lecture either, but instead falsely claims this is evidence Jesus existed.
That all includes Josephus’s alleged reference to Jesus’s brother: that definitely was not in Josephus originally (numerous independent peer reviewed studies argue this now—but Ehrman doesn’t check the literature). But even had it been we cannot establish Josephus knew or cared that that designation was fictive and not biological. It therefore does not support historicity even if authentic. And yes, Ehrman is supposed to know this (JFOS, p. 203). So that he doesn’t even mention it (much less rebut it) counts again as him concealing and evading the truth. Which no one with an actually defensible position would need do.
15. No, Hebrews Never Says Jesus Was on Earth
Ehrman claims mythicism is refuted by Hebrews 1:6, 2:14, 2:17 and 5:7 (and 2:3, 4:15, 7:14, and 12:2). But he doesn’t even know we addressed all these verses in our formal studies he is supposed to read but refuses to. Accordingly, he has no idea that he was already refuted in this argument, and thus makes no reply to those refutations to recover any of this evidence.
As the study he is supposed to be responding to proves (e.g. OHJ, Ch. 5, elements 36–39), the sky is part of the “inhabited world” and therefore Heb. 1:6 (which does not say Jesus was led to Earth but only to “what is inhabited”) does not specify where Jesus went beyond that (hence this was fully addressed in OHJ, p. 546). For Ehrman to not mention what we already said about these verses, and thus not even try to recover them from our rebuttals, is unprofessional and not competent behavior.
Likewise Hebrews 2:17 (where Jesus’s flesh is “made” by God) and 2:14 (where it is explained why Jesus had to be made flesh): these just say Jesus briefly became a mortal man, which (as I already explained above) is part of our hypothesis and thus cannot be evidence against it. Likewise Heb. 5:7, on Jesus’s prayer in the flesh, never says where that happened or how it was known (OHJ, pp. 549, 561). This indicates that Ehrman doesn’t even know what our theory is so as to competently challenge it. He consistently seems not to know that ours is a theory of the incarnation, not a denial of it.
This is so extensively explained in our studies, and even in my popmarket summary (JFOS, pp. 32, 48, 153, 172–89), that I cannot explain how he still does not know what our theory even is. But that he won’t even try to find out signals he is phoning this in and thus has no competent judgment to consult in this matter. He doesn’t even want to have a competent judgment in this matter.
Update: Ehrman has responded (sort of) to only this one point in Does the Book of Hebrews Indicate Jesus Ever Came To Earth? A Response to Richard Carrier. But all he does there is agree with the point I did make (I am “absolutely right” that Hebrews never makes clear where any of this stuff happened), while (again) never addressing any of my evidence for the point he wants to deny (that the pervasive silence and ambiguity of Hebrews is a little weird). See comment below for more on this point.
16. No, Jesus Is Not Like Socrates
Ehrman ignores entire chapters even in the book he claims to be responding to (JFOS, chs. 5 & 6) and falsely claims we should presume Jesus existed just as we do Socrates, and that we have better evidence for Jesus than we do for Socrates. Both claims are not only false, I extensively prove them both false. And Ehrman simply pretends none of that evidence exists and wasn’t presented and just ignores it and repeats the refuted claim instead. Usually we only get disingenuous or incompetent behavior like this from the most embarrassing Christian apologists. But alas.
That he is wrong is obvious: in How Would We Know Jesus Existed? (expanded in JFOS) I show why the evidence we have for Socrates is way better than for Jesus (likewise all the other people Ehrman falsely claims the contrary of), and that is precisely the problem Ehrman is supposed to be addressing. Likewise in So What About Hannibal, Then? (also expanded in JFOS) I show why Jesus is not in the same reference class as men like Socrates—unlike Socrates, Jesus belongs to a reference class whose members are more typically non-existent, and so the initial presumption for Jesus is that he also did not. Ehrman has never responded to these—our actual—arguments. Why?
17. Yes, We Have Reason to Doubt the Gospels Had Sources
Ehrman’s tired old circular arguments for the Evangelists having “sources” on a historical Jesus other than Mark and their own imaginations (sources which don’t exist and for which there is no evidence they ever existed) is not something I need beat dead again. That was a core point of Lataster’s peer-reviewed refutation of Ehrman—which Ehrman is ignoring so thoroughly that he doesn’t even mention that that refutation exists. And this goes well beyond Mark Goodacre (who has proved not even Thomas is independent of Mark). Over a dozen scholars agree with him (I have bibliographies in OHJ, p. 269, and Obsolete Paradigm, p. 30). And even advocates of Q are not as sure as Ehrman claims (even quintessential Q scholar John Kloppenborg says it’s at best 50/50: see Why Do We Still Believe in Q?). This is even more the case for the fact that the Gospel of John is dependent on Mark (and Luke): that is the mainstream conclusion of most specialists now (the state of the field is summarized, with bibliography, in MacDonald’s Dionysian Gospel). Ehrman pretends none of this exists. He is dying on the hill of Christian apologetics here.
All the same follows for the fact that we have extensive evidence that the Gospels routinely fabricate sayings and stories (none of which Ehrman even discusses). Just for readily available examples see Robyn Faith Walsh and the Gospels as Literature, Mark’s Use of Paul’s Epistles, Can You Rebel Against Rome with Only Two Swords?, Michael Alter’s Exemplary Review of Undesigned Coincidences, Was the Entire New Testament Forged in the Second Century?, All the Fantastical Things in the Gospel according to Mark, Why Did Mark Invent an Empty Tomb?, and then MacDonald’s new Synopses and Shipwrecked Gospels, Crossan’s Power of Parable, Brodie’s Birthing of the New Testament, the Jesus Seminar’s Five Gospels and Acts of Jesus, and so on.
I already covered Ehrman’s circular reasoning here last time (Recap §5, §27, §28). But it was already dealt with in the studies he is ignoring as well (OHJ §7 and §10 and PH §5). Once again, Ehrman is complaining about summary statements, and not checking the peer-reviewed study being summarized, like an amateur—shamefully, because he knows better. The end result is that Ehrman is simply ignoring that he has been refuted, and is just repeating the same refuted claims—and not even telling his students what he is concealing from them when he does that. Ask why.
18. Yes, We Have Other Cosmic Crucifixions
It’s already illogical to insist there be several versions of a unique thing, so it is dumb to ask why we don’t have “other” celestially crucified gods. Obviously that’s the distinctive innovation that made Christianity its own religion. I have explained this before (in respect to Maurice Casey’s “Deficit of Hypothetical-Categorical Reasoning”). But it’s a point I already made in the original study that Ehrman still refuses to read (OHJ, Element 38, pp. 194–97; cf. Elements 34–37, pp. 178–193). Again, Ehrman is simply not responding to the study.
But this is also a lovely example of foot-in-mouth. Because since I published, it was noted to me by a reader that Ixion was crucified in the heavens, and we even have art depicting it (I cover this in Obsolete Paradigm). But I even open JFOS with the fact that Osiris was killed in space, and the method of killing hardly matters to the point here. That’s a precedent. So Ehrman’s claim that there are none is false. I should also note that OHJ (§3.1) already describes Inanna being crucified in the Underworld, which is pretty much the same thing: another realm of the cosmos than the lands of men.
So not only is it silly to insist we have “other” examples of a specific thing the Christians innovated before believing evidence they innovated it, it’s even sillier to do that when we have other examples of the thing. Ehrman’s argument is well dead here. He really should fact-check his own armchair assertions before resting his case for Jesus on them. He should have asked, “Wait. Do we have other examples of executions in divine realms and not human?” Instead of doing that—the competent thing—he chose to do the incompetent thing and act like an internet amateur making shit up on the fly. His students deserve better.
19. Yes, Dying Messiahs Were Already a Thing
Ehrman keeps trying to claim Jews would never come up with such an idea. That’s beyond false. And that point is already covered in OHJ (Element 5, pp. 73–81) and is agreed by almost all experts who discuss it now. Jews absolutely had pre-Christian notions of suffering and dying messiahs. I already called Ehrman out for his ignorance on this last time (Recap, §20). And because people kept trying to gaslight the world on this, I have an article proving this (again) that has passed peer review (again) and will be published in a forthcoming issue of a notable academic journal (stay tuned).
20. Yes, Paul Understood All Baptized Christians as Brothers of the Lord (and Mentions No Other Kind)
Here Ehrman simply ignores even the entire chapter on this in the summary book he amateurishly only responds to (JFOS, Ch. 9). Literally. He just makes a bunch of assertions already refuted in that chapter. And then makes no attempt to mention or address those refutations so as to recover from them.
This is the most dishonest way to argue, and I really cannot respect anyone who behaves like that. And neither should you. But this was also already thoroughly addressed in the actual study he is supposed to be responding to (OHJ §11.10), and here that really matters, because now his argument is riddled with errors he would have corrected had he actually read the arguments he is supposed to be answering:
- “Paul does not call James ‘a brother of the Lord’ but ‘the brother of the Lord’ (Galatians 1:18-19; he uses the definite article).” I already answered this inept armchair objection in the original study (OHJ, p. 589 n. 99). Paul repeatedly uses the definite article to refer to brothers in the church. I give numerous examples there. So in fact its use here supports my point.
- “Paul never uses the term ‘brother of the Lord’ for Christians,” rather, “they are ‘brothers and sisters’ of one another in the church.” This is precisely the error I extensively correct with abundant evidence in JFOS and OHJ: they are only “brothers and sisters of one another” because (as Paul painstakingly and repeatedly explains) they are all brothers of the Lord, having been adopted as children of God (and at least ten peer reviewed studies confirm this now, as I’ll point out in Obsolete Paradigm). Hence Jesus is “the firstborn of many brethren” (and as Hebrews adds, Jesus himself calls them that). So you cannot circularly assume 1 Cor. 9:5 and Gal. 1:19 are not examples of “using the term ‘brother of the Lord’ for Christians.” Ehrman is arguing in a circle again.
- “Paul uses this phrase, ‘the brother of the Lord’ to explain which James this was, since it was a common name.” This is actually my argument (but Ehrman will never tell you that for some reason). Paul’s grammar in Gal. 1:19 makes clear that the “brother” James was not an Apostle, but the “pillar” James was. Which entails Paul did indeed need to distinguish this James from that one exactly as I argued. (… Wait. How does Ehrman not know that’s my argument? Oh, right, he will never read the actual study.) Anyway, that is why Paul distinguishes that James as a non-apostolic Christian. I explained this in complete detail even in JFOS (Ch. 9) and so Ehrman is literally ignoring even the summary he is supposed to be responding to (but also the original study: OHJ, pp. 588–91), and in result does not respond to my argument at all. So I guess I win that argument by TKO.
- “If it simply meant ‘Christian'” then why would Paul “use this as a way to say which James this was if there were other followers of Jesus also named James.” Gosh. I wonder if I answered that question somewhere? I wonder if Ehrman will respond or even mention my answer? Nope. He just ignores the argument he is supposed to be responding to. The reason why Paul did this is obvious and I explain it plainly in both JFOS and OHJ. You know where. So if you want to view what Ehrman is hiding from you and learn why his reasoning is unsound, go hence.
- “Why would anyone suspect he is not talking about the actual brother of the Lord?” This is pretty inept to argue. Um, Dr. Ehrman, maybe because at that time no one knew there were any such actual brothers to confuse? The idea of biological brothers was invented a generation later. So obviously everyone would assume Paul meant what everyone knew: fellow Christians (in this case, of below apostolic rank), because that’s the only kind Paul repeatedly told them about.
- “Would we expect Paul to say ‘the biological brother of the Lord’?” Yes. And for the very same reason as Ehrman just stated (because now Ehrman is contradicting himself). If two kinds of Brothers of the Lord existed, one biological (which Paul never describes) and one cultic (which Paul describes repeatedly and often), then obviously Paul would have to specify which one he means here. That he doesn’t means Paul had no idea of there being two kinds—there is therefore only the one kind, the only one he ever talks about: baptized Christians. If he knew of the other, he would not say “biological,” of course; he would sooner say “according to the flesh.” And how do I know that? Because Paul does exactly that when he needs to distinguish fictive brethren from biological in Romans 9:3: “my brethren, who are my kinsmen according to the flesh.” If we expect that there, we should expect it anywhere else that same distinction held. Ehrman clearly did not think this through. Instead he denies anyone would ever say that. Ooops. Paul did. Proving, yet again, that Ehrman doesn’t know what he’s talking about.
That all leads to my favorite example of Ehrman really being bad at this, when he says “it would also not make sense for Paul to specify that one person he met was a ‘Christian’ in a list of people who were Christian.” This is a perfect example of Ehrman not even reading JFOS (much less the actual study). He literally does not know that I already refuted this argument. And I’ll just quote JFOS without comment on that. You’ll face-palm the moment you read it:
All were brothers of the Lord, but that was already known of apostles, so it never had to be said of them. Just as saying, “I met the Pope and a Christian named James,” in no way implies the Pope is not also a Christian. But if Paul also knew there are biological brothers of the Lord, he would need to make that distinction if ever referring to them; so that he never does, implies he knew of no such distinction needing to be made. And since the only Brothers of the Lord Paul explicitly attests knowing of are baptized Christians, we actually cannot take these two passages as evidence he knew of biological brothers. They are, again, too ambiguous to draw such a conclusion from. Maybe it’s what he means. Maybe not. We cannot know. So this evidence is also useless.
This is especially clear in my point for 1 Cor. 9:5, which Ehrman never tells his students: that Paul had to include non-apostolic Christians there because it was essential to his argument that he should get a privilege if even they did. Whereas this argument would fail if he meant the kin of Jesus, as he could not claim a privilege they were receiving. So Paul cannot mean biological brothers there.
“Nothing to See Here. Move Along.”
All of this is, in fact, an entirely disingenuous approach. Ehrman is just rambling through a random list of cherry-picked armchair complaints, badly researched, often fatally uninformed, and all of them already refuted ten years ago. He isn’t doing what he is supposed to be doing: arguing for any of the relevant probabilities being different than I found. He does not explain why we shouldn’t see the evidence as likely or unlikely, or as likely or unlikely, as leads to my conclusion. And yet that is the only way to refute my evidence-based case that mythicism is the more probable hypothesis, as it explains more evidence, makes the evidence we have more likely, and fits the precedents of comparable cases (of mythologized saviors and heroes). You know. The actual argument he is supposed to be refuting.
I have a brief on that (Doing the Math: Historicity of Jesus Edition). Go skim that. And ask yourself why Ehrman never rebuts any of it. He just engages in vague handwaving amidst flurries of dubious assertions. He never explains why any of the probabilities we are supposed to be arguing about should be any different than I find them. And he certainly never does so by rebutting the reasons I gave for my assignments. He instead deliberately avoids even finding out (much less mentioning, even less rebutting) what those reasons are. And that’s really the end of the debate. Ehrman has lost. And all he is doing now is blowing rank smoke and hoping no one notices.
Which proves Jesus did not exist. Because if he did, Ehrman should have a good argument for it by now. Ten years and no dice? That’s surrender. He just doesn’t want to admit it to you.
Unlike Bart Ehrman, when I teach this course (every month, as Questioning or Defending the Historicity of Jesus) I do not conceal evidence from my students, I do not straw man the opposition, I do not make excuses not to read them and thus get everything they say wrong. I make everything available and ask my students to take seriously the opposing arguments—which requires making sure that they know what they are. Ehrman won’t do this. Which tells you all you need to know about whether his opinion on this subject is worth the bother of even mentioning. But it also tells you all you need to know about the historicity of Jesus: the field simply cannot defend it. That’s why, ten years, and still all they have to offer you is disingenuous disinformation.





Thank you for your efforts that shouldn’t even be necessary in the modern internet age. Exposing religt**ds (an accurate portmanteau term) is an important job.
Excellent summary. All of the own goals are great examples of Ehrman’s deliberate lack of care about what the evidence actually is or what mythicists say about it, but the example that really got me is “Ehrman actually claims that Romans 15:8 (the 5:8 on his slide is a typo)…” You made me snort coffee up my nose with that deadpan aside (at least I read it as deadpan). A typo wouldn’t be worth calling out under normal circumstances, but in this case… Not only does Ehrman deliberately refuse to look at or cite the evidence or arguments, not only does he chide mythicists for not reading the things he clearly hasn’t read himself, but also even when he does read or cite something he’s careless about that too.
To be clear, I don’t share that take. I don’t think typos evince anything. We all make them. And he corrected it in the lecture. So I don’t think that evinces laziness. The only reason I noted it was so that readers relying on his slides won’t be confused why I wrote 15 instead (since they might never see the lecture or its transcript).
A problem only arises when he claims something is a typo and is probably lying about that. Honestly admitting and correcting a typo is entirely professional and commonplace. But trying to hide behind that with a false claim to it being a typo is not professional, nor even ethical.
And so, when he admits in this lecture that there are typos in his book (but gives no examples to correct any), he appears to be referring to the lies I documented he has been telling for over a decade now (Recap §13; and a related lie, that looks like the same behavior I documented today: §11). And that is not defensible.
Oh, I agree that innocent typos don’t evince anything. It’s just that when the first tier of the cake is made with deliberate misconduct, the second tier is made with refusing to read the things you’re supposed to read, and the icing on the cake is patronizingly suggesting that your opponents are the ones behaving badly or not considering the evidence, I will get angry. But if you then add a little cherry on top like a typo, it might (to mix metaphors) be the straw that makes me snort coffee up my nose. It’s funny, even if it isn’t relevant or substantive to the argument.
Fair.
Yeah, Bart’s presentation was breezy and free of charge and served to promote a larger event that’s not free of charge. I like Bart a lot and all of this tends to sadden me. I personally haven’t made up my mind on historicity and I’m leaning hard towards taking your course.
You can definitely benefit from it. Every challenge or question you have I can get you to the sources and scholarship pro and con so you can make your own judgment call. And that really is what we need now. Because the biblical studies field has abandoned any interest in doing that. And I’m quite disappointed in that.
This is a very thorough refutation of Ehrman’s view. I still suspect that an historical Jesus figure might have existed at some time between 100 BCE and 30 CE, but if he did, then we know very little or nothing about him. I also accept that the evidence for a celestial Jesus has much to recommend it, and that scholars like you, Lataster, Price and others have argued for it very coherently.
Indeed, I myself concluded it’s 1 in 3 you’re right about Jesus. Which is a respectable chance Jesus existed. It is just too low for the religious establishment and their waterbearers to allow. Which generates all this carelessly constructed propaganda instead of real scholarship doing it’s actual job.
Bart understands the assignment: he doesn’t need to address anything in fact. He only needs something he can point to where he can say he did, with a title that says so. Then he needs just enough content that it ought to be enough, or is anyway longer than most would bother to wade through. And, any who do won’t also bother to check, so he just needs to sound confident. It suffices for its purpose, appearing to show that his seminar is about history, not fairy tales. He needs that because his audience will pay for history, but not for admitted fairy tales. In no scenario would fidelity to facts serve him.
That’s astute.
I only just last week came to the full realization of that as a universal strategy of apologetics.
Someone asked me why all the replies to my work (usually by amateur Christian bloggers and youtubers) is so terrible. It’s usually all so bad that the original articles they claim to be rebutting already refute them, requiring no reply: I just have to point someone to the original piece. For a while I just chalked that up to their all being bad at this. But I have realized a big part of it is what you just said:
In any delusion-industry (Christianity, Islam, MAGA, manosphere, flat earth, lizard theory), it’s not important to have an effective reply to anything. All you need is the appearance of having replied. So you can just say, “Yeah, forget them. Don’t read it. Carrier was already refuted in [X]. Move on.” The delusional can satisfy themselves that that’s true (they don’t have to do anything to even hear the critique, much less vet if it’s any good), and the propagandists can assuage their delusional influence-groups by asserting exactly the same.
This is why anytime mythicism gets mentioned in peer reviewed literature now, it’s with “that was all refuted” and a citation of Gullotta. Which clearly the author never even read, much less confirmed that it refuted anything. It is simply enough that a refutation exists: that’s all they need to dismiss a thing they don’t want to believe in (much less talk about or do any work on).
And given that’s true, and everyone can see it’s true, this has become boiler plate. It’s why Trump always makes absurd defenses against any charge: it does not matter the defense is shit; it’s mere existence suffices to maintain his peer and follower support.
This was ironically proved just this weekend with his lawsuit against WSJ. In no way will he ever pursue that (as that would subject him to touch-DNA tests against the card he claims is fake, and to full sworn depositions on his entire history with Epstein). But he needs it to exist. So that when it gets dismissed he can blame corrupt judges or whatever, and MAGA will be satisfied a refutation must exist, therefore Trump barely knew Epstein and never sent him a missive admitting knowledge of their shared tween orgies. Because that can’t be true. It just “can’t.” Therefore all a MAGAt emotionally needs is the existence of a refutation—that they will never read or care about the merit of.
And I see this in every delusion industry, literally, from flat earth to, now, historicity. It’s a thing. And I’m surprised I didn’t fully realize this before.
Having now been asked about the Epstein stuff fifty billion times on Quora, I’m quoting this literally right now.
What’s shocking about the Epstein stuff (and I know this is far afield but I still find it funny) is that for once Trump’s bullshit isn’t working . Some people in MAGA are pissed off and can see right through it .
Conspiracy theorists are stubborn. They know what they want and they stick with it.
As I’ve pointed out to people, this shows that MAGA never believed his bullshit lies because of ignorance, or a lack of education, or a lack of critical thinking.
They wanted those lies to be true. They liked that he lied to hurt brown and trans people.
But now the lies are inconvenient and are denying them the steak dinner of sensationalism they want. And so now they see right through them.
This is the core problem with delusional worldviews: they can easily evade contradictions with all the facts and every internal inconsistency that nevertheless supports the core belief the entire delusion is centered on. But what you can’t do is directly and openly contradict the core belief of the delusion itself.
In this sense, Trump et al. dug themselves into this hole and, because Trump is probably guilty and can’t figure out how to destroy the evidence of it without being caught at it, he can’t do the easy thing and just release all the files. But that then immediately displays him as a deep state agent. It doesn’t require steps of reasoning to work that out (like almost all other examples of his being a corrupt defender of the criminal elite). It’s undeniably a first-order observation, every day he doesn’t comply.
Which is why every day he does something but comply makes it worse: rather than creating a distraction (which usually works because his base want to not believe whatever it is that he is distracting them from and so are easily pipelined onto the new squirrel), it simply re-publishes his deep state behavior (because it is exactly what his base have all always believed is what deep state actors do: cover it up, distract with something else). Hence the strategy not only doesn’t work, it is actually having the opposite effect, by compounding the visibility of his crime.
There is a relevant analogy to Bart Ehrman here: this is why Ehrman can’t correct his mistakes. Doing so would be to admit to having made a massive number of mistakes and not knowing what he’s talking about, not even knowing what the theory is he is supposed to be assessing, after for years having claimed to. So he has to double down or evade or smokescreen his way out of this.
This is why he lied about what he did to Dorothy Murdock and with the Pliny correspondence: he had to. To correct himself would be to admit to egregious errors that would expose him as having acted completely incompetently in both cases. Yet that only made him look more guilty. But he decided that was better than admitting he’s untrustworthy.
Hence he is hoping that his handwaving will distract his fans and peers from realizing what he did. After all, all he has to count on is them never checking (because of a source bias against anything I say, which he has pre-cultivated with his lies and bluster). He can pull this off because it requires more than one step of reasoning to realize he did it. So he can count on his fans and peers not bothering with the second or third step, the same strategy that works for Trump most of the time. It’s just that now, Trump has finally done something that requires only one step of reasoning to see. And that’s almost impossible to escape.
An equivalent mistake for Ehrman would be to assert some lie about me or my work that is self-evidently false (whereby people can tell it is false from his own statement itself, like that I am an undisguised lizardman—which they don’t have to go check any facts or my book to know is false).
Well said!
He’s obviously a coward with a distinct bias he is trying to sell. It would be very instructive to engage in another debate with Ehrman. You’d mop the floor with him as per usual. The more research done on the plausibility of Historicity, the more dubious and improbable it becomes.
The “Delusion industry” indeed. the MAGA cult has no interest in the truth or looking at objective facts or evidence and Trump is trying to divert attention by talking about Obama or Hilary Clinton’s server- it is just the nonsense that it seems. There is good research done that the Right wing has authoritarian proclivities- often based on religious conditioning. (See One Leader Under God: The Connection Between Authoritarianism and Christian Nationalism in America, PRRI 09.10.2024).
He won’t debate me (he’s been offered thousands of dollars and always turns it down). And I suspect that’s because he knows I won’t let him get away with this stuff (Robert Price was easier to roll).
And yes, the role of authoritarian personality in our current electoral divide has been well documented for decades now (from Hofstadter, whose fellowship paid for my Ph.D. at Columbia, to Marasco).
The only parallel here is epistemic, though, rather than political. Authoritarians don’t respect academic authorities. Ehrman is on the opposite side of that.
So the only common factor is the replacement of evidence-based reasoning with some negative epistemology—in Ehrman’s case, with Arguments from Prestige (“who has the better degree or pedigree or professorship, or sells the most books and has the most fans or peers on their side, is right”); in Trump’s case, with Arguments from Aura (“who is the most manly man man with the most swagger and the best smarmy quips and the most impressive displays of outrage, is right”).
Bart is trading popularity for truth, I believe. He wants his cake and eat it with both sides (Christians and non-Christians). Absolutely unforgivable for a man with his knowledge and qualifications. I only wish that he would at least talk to you online. A full-blown debate is much difficult for him to justify. Thanks Richard! (ex-Christian of 60 years)
I don’t think he has the emotional maturity anymore to have a productive conversation on this subject (with anyone who disagrees with him, much less me). Every time he gets on the spot in any interview about this, he gets angry and emotional and flustered.
I think, like a flat-earther or a fundamentalist, he is so emotionally invested in the position he has staked his reputation on that he is completely immune to evidence or reason on this subject.
“It is difficult to get a man to understand something when his salary depends on his not understanding it.” ― Upton Sinclair,
Bart is in the same position as Derek, Jacob, Kipp, and even their frequent guests Robyn, Markus, and Paula. Even to entertain a wholly fictional Jesus would serve all poorly. The latter may rationalize that since no one can know, one position is as good as the other, but one side is markedly more convenient. And, it doesn’t touch on their subject, being what xians on record (Paul excepted) believed or anyway promoted. Facts are off-topic.
That “one side is markedly more convenient” to take is a good way to put it.
I know for a fact (as Philip Davies outright told me) that a lot of historians do doubt historicity but cannot say so (and thus must throw smoke whenever asked about it) lest it generate endless emotional labor for them as they get pestered and harassed and micro-aggressed by hundreds of their peers constantly, and then attempts are made to smear them that require even more emotional labor to fend off, and occasionally (it is easily feared even if it won’t occur) even actual coercion will result (attempts to get people’s tenure or corner office taken away, or losing grant money or invites to conferences or events or mixers; friends and family threaten disassociation; and so on).
Even just the first thing by itself (the labor of having to deal with “all the shit” of just people pestering you, and thus the need to spend weeks of specialized research labor getting up to speed so as to competently defend yourself) is enough to emotionally pipeline scholars into the “no way to know really but I lean toward existed” tack. It’s just easier. And if you do it noncommittally, you avoid all the mistakes that will make an idiot of yourself like Ehrman. Which is again easier.
So if scholars don’t really care whether Jesus existed, they have no incentive at all to defend mythicism. They rather should just try to ignore it and avoid it with noncommittal vagueries. Only fools and apologists storm in trying to slay the dragon.
Do you mean the late Philip Davies? I’m sorry I never met him but I hope he would have appreciated the fact that the first of his books that I bought, “Whose Bible Is It Anyway?”, came from the Catholic Truth Society bookshop in London.
Yes, thank you! Corrected.
I confused Paul with Philip (two very different famous scholars!). I meant indeed Philip.
Lataster also had a similar conversation with him corroborating mine (discussed in Questioning).
What topics will “The obsolete paradigm of a historical Jesus” cover?
It covers everything that has happened in the field on the question of historicity in the ten years since I published my formal study On the Historicity of Jesus, including formal critiques and a lot of new scholarship that has reinforced positions I voiced (some really great stuff, even beyond what I allude to above), and a revised final odds calculation (based on new findings that narrow my margin of error for the prior probability).
Plus it includes tutorials and examples for how to apply Bayesian reasoning to this and other cases (and thus why they come out differently than for Jesus); definitive treatments of the three “family of Jesus” arguments (Romans 1:3 etc., Galatians 4:4, and Gal. 1:19/1 Cor. 9:5), including new scholarship that has come out supporting me; and a whole new chapter thoroughly proving that Docetism did not exist, including a survey of several scholars who are starting to agree with me on that, and then proving that what has been mistaken for Docetism is actually a ton of evidence of ancient Christians denying the earthly historicity of Jesus. That chapter will be probably the most important new research this book introduces.
So many of these arguments aren’t even internally valid.
Let’s say crucifixion was uniquely Roman. So what? That doesn’t mean that you couldn’t write a myth where someone else used it, with clear literary and mythology purposes. By this reasoning, Conan must have been crucified by the Romans and not Thulsa Doom. What matters is that the crucifixion does something theologically/literarily important, and it does.
So, the reason that argument is logically valid (just not sound, because the premise is false) is not what you are thinking. Rather, it’s that Peter and Paul can’t have been preaching a Roman-killed Jesus (even as a Conan story). Everyone would then know that didn’t happen. It’s far too public an event. And far too temporally immediate. I discuss this option in Ch. 3 of OHJ and find it has a vanishingly small prior because it requires highly improbable suppositions (the full explanation is there).
It’s not impossible (urban legends do arise and lock-in even today in mere days—or Haitians aren’t eating my pets!). But the requirements in this case are overwhelming. It would be like trying to preach that Conan actually lept out of an interdimensional gateway and has conquered Portland. That’s not going to be a winning hook for evangelists. So anyone who wants to evangelize is usually going to come up with a far easier sell; and even if they don’t, the ones who do are going to poach all your prospects.
You can compare this to Lizard Theory today: the belief that Hillary Clinton is an extraterrestrial lizardman in disguise is marketable because it’s unfalsifiable. By contrast, the belief that a twenty-foot-tall lizardman named Jorb is actually leading a tent revival across Israel is not markable because it is easily falsifiable. And would have been even in the more gullible conditions of the first century.
Even a more plausible approach, of Paul saying Jesus was crucified by the Chinese in the Himalayas, is not probable enough for this (unless he literally actually says that), as I explain in my replies to Andrei. A Jesus crucified by Romans at the capital of Palestine would be far less so.
Fair enough, but is that what Ehrman is actually arguing toward? It seems like he’s arguing the horrible claim “Only Romans did crucifixion, therefore it must be real”, which is just such an obvious non sequitur.
Fair point. Unlike Ehrman, I like to be charitable. Hence my charitable read on what his argument is is the one about “Paul can’t have said crucified unless he knew Jesus was recently killed by Romans” and not “Mark can’t have invented a crucifixion unless there really was one because only Romans crucified people.” The latter is, as you note, not even a valid argument (it’s false even if its premises were true).
I appreciate your charity, and I find it especially funny given how so many people just act like the two of you are having a spat even though you go out of your way to actually show him quite a lot of respect and charity.
My issue is that I think Bart actually does a really horrible job disentangling these two points. He really is quite bad on this topic having seen him talk about it a few times, and I think he means both things we are discussing. I think he really is trying to argue that the distinctive nature of crucifixion as a Roman act demonstrates that it can’t be that it couldn’t have occurred celestially and must be a cult memory (that’s really common in a lot of historicist literature, hence all of the “argument from embarrassment” “they wouldn’t cop to their founder being an executed felon unless they had to” nonsense). I agree that there’s also the point, that I don’t think I’ve seen him articulate but he may have finally done well enough, that the specificity of a Roman crucifixion in the public-facing myth would be an issue for them. They would need the public-facing myth to survive the sniff test even when they eventually then clarified the point.
To steelman the point, if we find some imagery in some early letter where the crucifixion is depicted in a more specifically Roman way and we can see indications that that means Paul had the same thought, then what that might do is suggest a pretty narrow period for the cult to have created that iconography. But your position, from my understanding, is exceedingly clear that, whatever the Talmud’s chronology, Christianity as a distinctive cult started essentially when everyone agrees it did, with Peter and the other founding members. That period is exactly when, if it was useful for them, they would have imagined the celestial execution as having Roman elements. That would be literarily and mythologically powerful.
And that is a fair assessment. Because confusing things and sucking at decoupling them is a routine failure mode for him, which I’ve documented a dozen examples of by now.
Correct.
While it is possible it started in the earlier period, I personally doubt it. Although if we confirmed it did, this would reopen the question of historicity, since whatever we gained that “proved” that chronology correct might contain data establishing that Jesus really lived and died then. Historicity would then be settled. But the guild would remain very unhappy. Because then the historical Jesus would be radically nothing at all what they thought and the Gospels chronology entirely a lie. That would be an interesting result. But I am skeptical it will ever turn out.
What’s the new margin of error/odds that there was some barely known random guy at the very, very bottom of Christianity?
Sorry, I misread you.
I had said the “prior” odds narrowed (the consequent odds have not changed) and I thought that’s what you meant; but I see you meant to ask about the new final odds.
The new prior odds on Jesus existing are now (plausibly) between 1 in 5 and 1 in 4.
The consequent odds haven’t changed.
So the new odds on Jesus existing are 1 in 3000 to 1 in 4.
Why did the prior odds narrow?
You’ll have to get the book. 🙂
I’ll take Jesus Ananias, an actual delusional Iron Age nutcase whose “prophecy” turned out to be right, over a delusional Iron Age nutcase of dubious historicity who was wrong.
If we grant an actual Paul, he can’t be writing to the Corinthians in the 50s BC on account of Corinth being razed by the Roman consul Lucius Mummius in 146BC and not being rebuilt until its’ refounding as Colonia Laus Iulia Corinthiensis by Gaius Julius Caesar in 44AD.
The Damascus episode looks fo all the world to be modelled on the Rahab story in Joshua 2 and interrupts the flow of the surrounding text; having nothing to do with it. That it is impossible after 63BC is true; but as irrelevant as the claim Nazereth didn’t exist in the first half of the First Century AD.
Way post Bar Kosiva Jewish wrtings like the Talmud spend an awful lot of time describing Temple rituals; legislation; and priestly activities as if the Temple was still standing and in still in use. That other Jewish sectarian writings do the same is similarly no evidence for those being written antebellum. It is possible the Hauptbriefe was of course; but given the sheer amount of contradiction betwixt and within, one would have to conclude a real Paul a schizotypal with DID! As it is, Livesy’s case for the Pauline Epistles being a fictional letter collection à la Seneca and Ignatius is likely probative. We even have ancient guides on how to create these e.g. ‘Epistolary Types’ (Typoi Epistolikoi) attibuted to a Pseudo-Demetrius the initial phases of which are probably 2nd Century BC.
G.Mk. dates itself c.130AD off the ‘Little Apocalypse’; qua Vinzent, Marcion either had and published or wrote and published a G.Lk precusor gospel: Euaggelion, in the 2nd quarter of the 2nd Century AD in response to unauthorised material, what would become our G.Mk; G.Mtt.; G.Lk; and G.Jn, plagiarising his taught gospel much as Galen would complain was done to his work. The entire Xtian ouevre is likely a 2nd quarter of the 2nd Century and later phenomenum, and attempting to excavate an earlier history for Xtianity not likely to get beyond being speculation all the way down. It all falls beyond grandparents vouching for it and all beyond three genocidal wars leaving any likely witness dead and/or trashed.
Why 30AD? All the buzz words were made common place with August’s “gospel” being inscribed prominently everywhere and Judea had to have lost its’ independence. That and being irrevocably beyond anyone being remotely able to attest it bullshit, and Voilà! That crank numerology will spit the date even better.
We aren’t far from the point of this all being unarguably a bloody great waste of everyone’s time and money; Time to give it up as a bad job, and all of the guild go and do something socially useful. I hear there is great want for gardeners and pool guys now 47 has gotten a handle on illegals. /s
I am now going to re-watch the “Dead Parrot” skit; flog the stain in the road of a horse long since glue; and then watch some paint dry. I’d like to read the ‘Phone Book too; but that is no longer in print.
Hasta la vista, be well, and TTFN
You really need to fact-check yourself.
Corinth absolutely existed as a thriving city two hundred years after the Romans destroyed it. The archaeological evidence alone is decisive on this but we have a ton of textual evidence, too.
The rest of your contrarian assertions likewise fall apart when you check. So, check. Please don’t repeat unchecked silliness in my comments. It’s robbing everyone here of their time.
An interesting response. If I could find a Corinthian rabbit-hole; I’d go down it. When I look for 1st Century Corinth, all the links take you to jabberings about Paul’s epistles. The one none-NT source I could find for Corinthians was a one line mention by Cicero of Corinthians in the wider Peloponnesus; not to Corinth itself. No matter, there was a Corinth in the decade almost all have the putative Paul active; whether or not Corinth existed in some form or other between 146BC-44BC is therefore irrelevant. As for the rest; I’m basing that on scholarship I’ve read and not just pulling it out of my butt, tah.
Richard, when I heard on his (Barts) podcast that there was going to be a free lecture on this topic, I said,”Richard Carrier is going to have a Field Day with this.” Just as I expected, You Rolled Him! Well done..! I’ve read OTHJ and JFOS, it’s amazing how I find so many discrepancies with Ehrmans works after studying yours. Looking forward to your new book. Keep up the terrific scholarship!
Thank you. I appreciate this. I am so constantly gaslit by the industry it matters a lot to hear people who have confirmed “it’s not me, it really is just them.”
Why do you think all the responses to you are so bad?
Personally I think they view it backwards. They “know” Jesus existed so your work must be in error. Then they either skim it (or don’t read it at all) and assume the arguments for Jesus existing can’t have been refuted, or they do actually read it looking for the point where you made the mistake which must exist to allow you to deny what they “know” to be true and jump on the first thing they think they’ve found without trying to understand if maybe they’re strawmanning you.
That’s a good question. I have two different kinds of answer.
First, which is, more specifically:
There is no good way to make a bad argument. So once someone has decided they have to make a good argument go away, they really only have a few options, none of them good. One of them is, as you note, just cherry picking anything they can claim is wrong, no matter how trivial, and then declare total victory. This is a known cognitive bias: when weak arguments are paired with strong, people will ignore the strong, refute the weak, and emotionally “feel” like they refuted both and walk away. So to use that device, one has to hunt for the weakest arguments, and actively avoid all the strong ones.
An even worse way to do that is to create weak arguments to do that with, by straw manning the strong ones.
And so that’s how all rebuttals to a well-argued thesis (whether it’s minimal mythicism, intersectional feminism, hybrid socialism, spherical Earth, global warming) always end up full of straw-men, skipped evidence and arguments, and an obsession with trivial gotchas, and be presented with total, massive, dick-swinging confidence so as to just “awe” someone into agreeing with you.
If you are especially bad at this, you will (like Ehrman) do this so lazily that you fail to even fact-check yourself and end up making more errors than you claim for the text you were trying to rebut.
It’s pretty clear by now that Ehrman is a mediocre scholar, not a particularly good one. He can do good work when he tries really hard (every peer reviewed monograph he’s done is excellent in its subject). But otherwise, he makes excuses not to read the expert literature, he makes stuff up from the armchair, he doesn’t do any real fact-checking, he takes no care to get right anything he rebuts (see Ehrman on Historicity Recap for reams of examples)—all the things a PhD program is suppose to have trained out of you. And that’s a choice. He had the training. He just doesn’t apply it here. Which is simply being a poor scholar.
Second, which is, more broadly:
See my other comment here for some insights.
But the main reason my critics usually suck is as I explain in Which Is ‘Rational’: Theism or Atheism?. Though that’s about Christian apologists, the same logic applies to secular historicists: the critics storm in and make all these mistakes because they are bad at it. Anyone more skilled and savvy would know better, and would thus not even wade in, or do so too vaguely to create a problem (hence my point in another comment here).
False beliefs actually cannot be defended. So any argument for them will always be bad. But one can avoid the worst mistakes and create a more competent appearance of a rebuttal. That just takes a level of skill that most people punting for false beliefs lack (and clearly Ehrman lacks). People who are good at this tend to escape false beliefs (or avoid unforced errors). So they will self-select themselves out of the pool of my opponents.
I take issue with your suggestion that Paul knows more than one person named James. I think he only knows one and just calls him “James”, just as he does in 1 Cor 15 and Gal 2. Paul never adds any additional identifier to the other 40+ people he mentions in his letters. He adds the “brother of the lord” bit in Gal 1, to remind the Galatians that James “the pillar” is not an apostle (aka a missionary). You seem to be arguing that someone that is a pillar has to be an apostle, but I don’t think Paul sees it that way. As he says to the Corinthians in 1 Cor 9 “surely I am to you!”. It implies that the Corinthians are themselves more privy than others of Paul’s apostleship, but how could that be if not for the fact that he is a missionary to them?
This is Paul’s entire point in Gal 1-2 that he is validated as an apostle because he received “good news” through revelation of Jesus and it was vetted and approved by the leaders of the church and “nothing was added”. I think the “nothing added” bit is important to show that the leaders fully accepted it as a true revelation. Had they not accepted it fully then they would have had more “newer” revelations that would have modified Paul’s revelation. Their acceptance of Paul’s gospel without addition means there was no disagreement about its validity. Paul’s “news” is the Gentile mission that is now approved and it was not an agreed upon thing until Paul himself argued for it. That’s why Paul is naming names and dates. He can prove this by laying out who he met and when he met them. The Galatians will then know that Paul is telling the truth because they know when Paul started preaching this “good news” to them. Paul does not live in Judea (neither do the Galatians), so his only opportunity for interactions with any major Christians is through their missionary work, which operates out of Jerusalem. That’s why he indicates the missionary status of everyone involved, because he can only meet missionaries that are travailing outside of Judea. Paul’s point is that he only happened to meet James because he himself traveled to Jerusalem, because there was no opportunity for him to have met James anywhere else, because James isn’t a missionary (an apostle). We even have some evidence that James doesn’t travel from Gal 2:12 where James does not show up to Antioch for a meeting between Cephas and Paul, but instead sends some men on his behalf. I think this is also where the Hegesippus myth about James the Just comes from, as Christians needed to explain the time gap between the crucifixion of Jesus and the fall of Jerusalem. They need a “just man” that stays in Jerusalem to prevent its destruction and they decide that it must be James from the comment made in Gal 2:12, where James would have to stay in Jerusalem to prevent its destruction.
I don’t think there is a clear argument to be made that a pillar is an apostle and Paul never calls James (any James) an apostle. It’s a later invention that all of the early leaders are apostles, but this would be logistically difficult to manage as there would need to be someone to manage the fort while everyone is roaming the countryside. As far as we know (as far as we could speculate given the evidence) James is an elderly man of wealth that is bankrolling the Christian mission. He obviously would be put in a position of power, but Paul would not consider him to be an “apostle” unless he was an actual messenger that traveled to deliver the gospel to other people, even though he acknowledges that James had his own vision of Jesus. So it’s important for Paul to mention that he met James when he did, but he is highlighting that this meeting occurred only because Paul had traveled to James and not the other way around.
If Paul is correct, then the leaders of the church do accept his message. He doesn’t need to prove that. He only needs to prove the logistics of him coming to know his gospel, which he can only have received via missionary or revelation.
You couldn’t chuck a rock at the time without hitting a James; so many that writers (Paul, Josephus) routinely needed to say which James they meant. We even had two apostles James, by some accounts. (One of few names more common was Jesus, making it implausible that there were no apostles Jesus or even a leper Jesus.) Enough people were milling about that we have no need to economize on dramatis personae by doubling up.
Note that that’s kind of getting in the weeds of Ehrman’s false framing.
Paul does not need the Galatians to know which James he met. As he explains in Gal. 1 he just has to cop to every Christian he happened at that occasion to meet. The Galatians don’t need to know who they are. Just that there was one. So Paul is not assuming the Galatians know which low-ranking James (Jacob) he met, only that he met one other Christian named James.
Where Paul needs to make a distinction is with the important James in Gal. 2 who is in the top leadership of the entire movement. The Galatians certainly know who that is, and it certainly matters to Paul’s discourse there who he is. Thus Paul identifies him as the “pillar,” one of the top three guys, essentially the steering committee for the entire religion at that time (to whom Paul is often bringing bags of money, as he describes several times across his letters).
Hence, Paul goes out of his way to make clear the random James he met before was not an Apostle, so that the Galatians know he does not mean the important James he interacted with years later, who is an Apostle (in fact one of the top three). Thus Paul is specifying (by grammar and vocabulary) that the James in 1:19 is not the James in 2. But he doesn’t need to be any more specific than that for the different points he is making in chs. 1 and 2.
This is “not allowed” by Christian dogma (which Ehrman is still mired in, or does not want to offend his Christian peers by denying), because James the Pillar has to be the biological brother of Jesus—just “has” to be (for obscure doctrinal reasons no one outside the faith cares about). So it is considered offensive, and an “all hands on deck” emergency, the moment any scholar admits they not only aren’t the same person, but can’t be (because one of them has to be an Apostle and Paul says the other isn’t, so it is not possible for them to be the same person).
So one needs to be aware of the “situational politics” behind interpreting this data that impairs even Ehrman’s judgment on it.
ncm’s reply is correct: it is literally impossible for Paul to have known only one Christian named James (as even Ehrman points out).
The name is actually Jacob and it was one of the most common names for Jews then. The Gospel Apostle lists have multiple Jacobs already, just in twelve people. And if there were seventy apostles and, say, hundreds of believers besides, there would be dozens of Christians named “James,” several in the Apostolate alone—which is why Paul does not identify the James in Gal. 2 as “the apostle” but as “the pillar,” to specify which Apostle he was.
And no, that James cannot have been top command and not an Apostle: Paul lists ranks in the Church elsewhere and only Apostles stood at the top, never “mere missionaries.” Though what the word “missionary” could mean besides “Apostle” is hard to construct here—you might be thinking anachronistically about Christianity in later generations. In Paul’s day only Apostles were authorized to preach (to “go on missions” in the sense of seeking converts and establishing congregations); that’s Paul’s entire point in Galatians 1.
Hence the James in Gal. 1 Paul says is not an Apostle, and so cannot be the same guy (see my reply to ncm). He is, rather, just a random person he has to confess having met before, not anyone important enough to specify beyond that.
Paul does not say who the James is in 1 Cor. 15. I suspect that’s an interpolation, but even if Paul wrote it, it’s too vague to specify even which Apostle James it would mean, as there was more than one; but it cannot mean the James in Gal. 1 because that one is not an Apostle, and the one in 1 Cor. 15 is implied to be among the Apostles, and certainly not described there as a mere “Brother of the Lord,” the very thing that is supposed to distinguish someone from the Apostles.
I don’t think this is a poor explanation necessarily, but it imagines that Paul would care about his interactions with a low ranking Christian. He freely admits to arguing with Christians prior to his conversion. It’s not clear why low ranking Christians from Judea are so special and need to be itemized for this particular argument, but low ranking Christians outside of Judea don’t. Paul doesn’t feel the need to identify the James of 1 Cor 15, or John in Gal 2. If you think that all of the pillars were so widely known that Paul wouldn’t need to specify which John he is referring to, then they would be widely known enough that he wouldn’t have to name them at all. I also don’t think 1 Cor 12:28 can be a ranking of church positions necessarily because one of the rankings is “miracles” or people that can do miracles. This seems to apply to apostles as well (as does teacher) so there is not a clear separation of function here. Apostles are first because they are first on the scene, it doesn’t mean they are more import than prophets or teachers (which they also are).
This explanation just seems to be trying to avoid the very simple conclusion that Paul doesn’t think James is an apostle. I get that this conclusion conflicts with the gospels, but it doesn’t mean Paul has to agree and it isn’t clear to me that he would play politics with his labels. If James doesn’t travel for missionary work, Paul may very well be willing to make that argument if it further proves his point. I don’t think there is any reason to demand that all early leaders of the church were missionaries, it just seems unlikely given the fact that they would most likely be elderly people.
I think you are behind the ball here.
You need to read the analysis in chapter 11.7 of OHJ to get up to speed (or ch. 9 of JFOS).
Paul had to admit to any even trivial Christian he met on that occasion (not the later one). It is inherently required by the point of that chapter and is why he has to swear by it. So to understand this, you need to read the analysis.
He does identify that John: as one of the three pillars. Obviously everyone knew who the top three people in their entire movement were, and recognized them by their designation as the pillars.
As for the James in 1 Cor 15, even if we assume Paul wrote that verse (it’s questionable), it is then part of a repeated and familiar creed: thus everyone would know which James it was, because it was creedally the case that that James received a vision with all the other apostles after the brethren’s ecstasy. Paul would not need to edit the creed to add information unnecessary to the Corinthians.
But it is also of course of no use pondering: there were multiple Jameses in the Apostolate. So that he did not think it necessary to specify this was not an Apostle or was kin of Jesus tells us we cannot assume that that James was not an Apostle or was kin of Jesus. Because clearly Paul assumes the Corinthians know which James this was of the many famous Jameses they knew—the only reason he could let it go unspecified.
Okay now I think you are just being disingenuous. Paul there is explicitly describing the order of authorities (that is the whole context of 1 Cor. 12), and says Apostles are “first” (no one else). Prophets are “second”—meaning, mere prophets (people who prophecy, which he has been going on about); not meaning that Apostles don’t prophecy, but meaning people who prophesy but aren’t Apostles. Obviously.
Likewise, “third” is teachers, meaning people who teach but don’t prophecy and aren’t apostles. Obviously apostles and prophets also teach. But they are higher ranking because they are also prophets (rank two) or Apostles (rank one).
Paul then goes down the ranks below teachers: powers (most likely this means exorcists, having power over demons; so this means people who can expel demons, but aren’t appointed teachers, aren’t receiving prophecies, and were’t appointed by Jesus as an apostle), healers (likewise: Apostles also heal and expel demons, but those who merely heal or expel demons are below them, and those who merely heal are below even those who merely expel demons).
Paul puts healers on the bottom equal to everyone else (all are equally ranked): helpmeets (assistants, janitors, etc., even though as Paul attests all do chores regardless of rank, so this means those who only do chores, i.e. aren’t exhibiting powers and weren’t appointed teachers or apostles), administrators (managers), and speakers in tongues.
Paul himself says he speaks in tongues more than anyone, yet places speakers in tongues at bottom because he means those who only speak in tongues, not Apostles or prophets or healers who speak in tongues. And even when they do speak in tongues, they still go last in authority (hence Paul’s tongues hold less authority than his appointment and privileges as an apostle, yet as long as he has an appointment as an apostle he is first in rank, unlike speakers in tongues with no other gift or status).
Hence the next verse: “not all are apostles, not all are prophets,” etc. but (v. 31) you must defer to the ranks in order of appointment (miracle workers who teach outrank miracle workers who don’t, etc.).
Paul thus does not mean no one else performs miracles or manages or helps or teaches or speaks in tongues or has revelations. He means those who perform those things but aren’t apostles are below apostles (and teachers) and above speakers in tongues and healers and so on.
The James in 1:19 isn’t. The James in 1 Cor. 15 has to be (because it’s a list of apostles) as must the James in Gal. 2 as it was impossible to hold rank shared with the top three and not be an apostle.
You are the one who seems desperately inclined to deny this for some reason, despite all the evidence leaning the other way.
Looking into this, what you’re saying makes sense to me from another angle- the three “pillars” John, James, and Peter would be the “John and James sons of Zebedee”, not James the “brother of Jesus”. In the Gospels, its these 3 – Peter, James & John Sons of Zebedee that take more prominent positions than the other disciples (or at least, they want prominent positions).
So if these 3 guys were the main leaders that Paul had to deal with, it would make sense that they would then get written into the Gospels that way.
Correct.
I make this point in OHJ as well (and more again in OPH).
thanks. now I really just need to read OHJ!
In Holy Fable vol. 3, Robert Price argues that the Eucharist in 1 Corinthians 11 didn’t come from Paul’s vision of Jesus, but an older tradition. He also says that the version of Mark is older. He doesn’t go into details. It seems to me that Mark created his narrative from 1 Corinthians. In the Pauline Eucharist Jesus is clearly alone and not handing bread and wine to the disciples. There’s also a very different Eucharist in the Didache that doesn’t involve eating the flesh and drinking the blood of Christ. That one makes more sense in a Jewish context. The Pauline one seems like something out of a mystery religion. What do you think?
Price has said himself that he has proposed many contradictory theories, arguing any one of them could be true. That means you can’t take any single theory he advances somewhere as “his theory.” He might mean it’s one possibility among several that we can’t rule out. That Price argues like this routinely is a problem I have remarked upon before, but once you realize that’s what he’s doing all the time, you’ll get tripped up less. So, whether Price has elsewhere argued for the revelatory explanation I don’t know; you’d have to read all the books and articles he ever wrote before being able to say he didn’t. Which is kind of the problem.
But let’s set that aside.
Many scholars argue for a fabricated tradition passed on to Paul (e.g. Crossan), so Price is not out on a limb here. But usually they mean an embellishment on a historical Jesus, not a “whole cloth” invention.
Like you note, the evidence of that passage in Paul depends on whether we understand the Disciples are in a room on Earth somewhere when Jesus says and does all that. If Paul had said they were, then this passage would strongly confirm historicity even if it never happened, because then to invent it still requires assuming it’s the sort of thing that could have happened, which requires assuming Jesus was on Earth with the Disciples before his death to tell this story of.
And yes, Mark used Paul’s letters (so did Luke), and so that’s where they are getting the details that they flesh out into a story about the Disciples (a detail not in Paul and not even likely given the ways Paul describes it).
As for the Didache and the Jewish thing, I know experts like Ehrman keep saying that but they are misleading the public: there is nothing un-Jewish about the Eucharist as described by Paul. The idea that “drinking blood” and “cannibalism” would be repugnant is an anachronism, falsely projecting medieval Catholicism into the first century: Paul is not describing transubstantiation; he is describing symbolism. Jews would have no problem with wine that is literally wine and only symbolizes blood (likewise bread for flesh), because the Law only proscribed literal consumption of blood and forbidden flesh, not “figurative” consumption.
As for how the different version arose in the Didache 9, it’s not possible to say because we can date neither that text nor its source tradition. It could be that it was the original (taught by Peter and gang), since it lacks any historical Jesus doing anything (it does not attribute any of it to Jesus either). That would fit Paul saying his version came from a vision directly to himself, so he is innovating (and he’d just have to sell that as acceptable to the Jerusalem headquarters, and there is no hint of any Jewish Christian opposition to it in Gal. 2, where the only opposition was to his not requiring Gentile brethren to convert to Judaism). But it could also be that the Didache tradition evolved elsewhere and later for some other reason.
That said, IMO, it does sound more Jewish. But that it is more Jewish doesn’t make Paul’s “un”-Jewish. His just looks more syncretized. So I would lean toward the Didache version being earlier. I just don’t think we can be confident.
And yes, Paul’s is a syncretism of a Jewish ritual (Passover) and mystery cult “Lord’s Meals” which were literally also communions with their respective savior gods. I will eventually do an article on that (as I have by now the Dying and Rising, Virgin Birth, and Baptism elements), as there is a ton of peer-reviewed literature to cite on the point now. But Paul Davidson has done this in brief already.
James Tabor also points out here that in the Didache’s version of the Lords Supper the cup is raised first, then the bread. which is more typically what Jewish people do at Passover (from what I understand, that’s a true statement).
In Luke, the cup is raised first, then the bread, then the cup again. Tabor thinks this might be a synthesis of 2 different traditions in Luke. (Paul’s and the Didache’s).
Any thoughts?
I don’t have any strong opinions about that. But I think it is likely.
Richard,
Regarding the Didache, I found this passage particularly intriguing:
ὃς ἂν ποιῇ εἰς μυστήριον κοσμικὸν ἐκκλησίας (Didache 11:11).
I noticed you didn’t refer to it in OTHOJ, but it might have some relevance to your argument for early Christianity as a mystery cult.
Good question.
I forgot to index the Didache in OHJ. I dismissed it there as unusable because undatable (it’s also corrupt; there are multiple versions, so we cannot be certain we have the original text and manuals were the most prone to continual revision). But I also have never found anything in it usable even could we date it early (I find some tangential uses in Obsolete Paradigm, though I also need to correct the index there, as there is a mention on both p. 361 and 46).
The phrase you cite is unfortunately too ambiguous to do anything with. I know the Greek word has the tantalizing root “cosmic” but the word did not mean exactly what that means in English but actually, often, the opposite: it means worldly, earthly (see Hebrews 9:1), and in juxtaposition often with priestly, clerical, official, i.e. performing “worldly mysteries” meant an itinerant lay missionary walking the earth and not officially assigned a church or holding rank.
But that this was described as “mysteries” is already in Paul so we don’t need to cite late dubious sources for it. I cite various studies, which likely in turn cover the Didache or other documents in the early centuries, which suffices to make the point. It would be really foolish for an apologist today to deny the Christian sacraments were from the beginning understood as “mysteries” complete with secret information (Paul explicitly says this several times).
Richard,
I am not sure why the hypothesis that Paul believed Jesus was not killed on Earth is so important to mythicists. Let’s say Paul dreamed Jesus came to Earth. There would be no GPS coordinates attached to this dream so he would not know when and where that happened. Say he believed Jesus was born on Earth somewhere, was killed by some bad guys, was resurrected and ascended to heaven. Does that make it so? No.
Mythicists can accept this possibility and avoid the need to explain how the seed of David was transported in the sky, how was he born, etc. Paul believed he was born on Earth, by an earthly woman from the seed of David. Great. Paul believed that based on a dream. It just did not happen.
This also neatly explains the two versions of Jesus. Later Christians would be curious where and when Jesus lived and it might be the case they located some guys fitting the profile somehow. Mark found one in the time of Pilate, some other Christian found another one in the time of Alexander Jannaeus. Of course, they could invent them but even this is not necessary.
I actually mention this in my study as a possibility (OHJ, p. 563 n. 67).
It’s simply less probable given all the contextual evidence (both in the texts and in the wider culture). Which I show with abundant Elements of data in Chapter 5.
And the question of how this gets scored as evidence has to reflect the relative probabilities, e.g. if Paul wrote “born to Mary,” while it is “possible” he imagines this as some distant woman no one met who got pregnant in some mythical place on Earth (akin to how she is described in Revelation 12, though it actually suggests she gives birth in outer space, on or near the moon, hence the firmament), it is not on balance probable that he did.
In other words, if we had that sentence and it was credibly authentic, we could say, for instance, that there’s a 25% chance (or whatever) that he would say that if he dreamed it and a 100% chance he would say that if he was referencing a real event he knew about (and thus a historical Jesus), the likelihood ratio favoring historicity would be 4/1. The possibility you suggest is included in the 1 (the 25%). But the overall probability is that it is more likely he would be saying that if Jesus existed (not impossible otherwise, just less likely otherwise).
Unless we could adduce a bunch of evidence supporting that view as common at the time or implied by indirect data, in which case it becomes 50/50 (100% chance he’d say it if Jesus was historical and a 100% he’d say that even if he meant a mythical event on Earth, or even on the Moon, involving a real woman or a woman he believed to be real).
This is why the celestial theory prevails. There is a ton of evidence for it (both as a common thing and as triangulated by a lot of internal data in Christian texts, as I discuss in the study). So it becomes just as likely on either theory. But that would plummet if Paul actually described what he thought was a real woman (named Mary etc.). It would not plummet to zero, or even a vanishingly small probability (it would maintain a respectable probability, just not a high one). But the evidence would tilt toward historicity as the most likely explanation of that (not a necessary one, just a “more likely” one).
The tilt would become overwhelming, though, the more historicizing data Paul added. Like, that it happened in a named town Paul could have visited, or that Paul says he met her (and not in his mind), and so on.
P.S. Compare this to Rev. 12: it implies his mother gives birth to Jesus on the moon. That could be an allegory for a historical event on Earth—and being that Revelation is post-Gospel that is even likely, or as likely as the alternative by then, and that’s why it doesn’t weigh as evidence for or against historicity.
But for the same reason that one can’t use this as evidence for mythicism (because it is late and in a text obviously deliberately nonliterally and arcanely constructed and so not conclusive in its meaning), one also couldn’t use it as evidence for historicity (because for the same reason it could really mean this happened in space, so even if she was named that would still be 100% the kind of thing we’d expect on cosmic mythicism and so it can’t be evidence against it).
The same would hold if we recovered a lost authentic letter of Paul that said Mary was a magical woman who gave birth to Jesus in the Garden of Eden beyond the land of Shin. That’s an earthly birth, but clearly an imaginary one.
So it all depends on what evidence is or is not provided in the texts. The probabilities will then reflect what is usual for those indicators and thus reflect our uncertainties.
Thus, Paul could have imagined the magical Eden Mary thing, but only wrote Mary, and we would thus not know he meant an imaginary Mary. We then have to base our beliefs on what we do know, and that would make his reference to Mary tilt toward historicity instead. That we would be wrong about that is already included in the probability we are wrong about that (which is the probability that Paul would say this, without any more detail, and still mean the magical rather than the historical thing).
It is not important to mythicists except insofar as Paul identifies his killers as “archons”, i.e. not humans, and is supremely indifferent to time and location, something not compatible with expectation that there was one. It is a matter of staying consistent with the evidence. Transportation of the “seed of David” did not bother Paul, so should not bother us. Paul was quite specific that his Jesus was not born, but made, something historicists insist we ignore.
Later identifying a patsy is fundamentally different from an actual person having roped in Peter et al., but not substantively different from inventing him wholesale. “The Iliad was not written by Homer, but by another man of the same name” is a joke, not a deep philosophical point.
Intriguing.
May I ask why hanging is assumed to be crucifixion and not just hanging as if by a rope?
Because the ancient words are “stake” or “staked” not “hung” per se. This is all discussed in OHJ as indicated, covering the vocabulary and peer reviewed studies.
The LXX occasionally uses “in-the-sun” (meaning “sunned” or “exposed”) which is vague but generally meant hanging on a pole or tree, not roped by the neck (because it doesn’t specify manner of death but treatment of the body, whether used to kill or after).
And the LXX and Hebrew for Dt. 21:21–22 are nonspecific in the verb (they just say “hang on a tree/plank”) but specify in the preposition (they both say “on” and not “from” a plank/tree and thus do not mean hanging by the neck with rope).
To hang by rope is a completely different set of words in Greek (with usually the agcho– or broch– root), never used in any of the contexts I discuss.
The fact that crucifixion was used only by Romans is a questionable dogma (hasmonean king Alexander crucified 800 Pharisees decades before the roman rule). Do you think that the original shape of the cross was a stake, as Jehova’s witnesses say?
Indeed. No historian should ever have thought crucifixion was at all distinctively “Roman.” It was standard practice across every culture since the Assyrians, Plato, and Solomon.
Nor should any historian have ever anachronistically assumed words translated in modern Bibles as “crucifixion” (and cognates) described a “cross” or even a method of execution: the words never mention killing anyone with it; so the words in the Bible do not tell us whether their author thought it was used to do the killing or only as the fate of the killed; and the words only mention “stakes” or “sticks” being involved (stauros, xylon), not how or in what shape.
And there was no fixed rule even among the Romans what “shape” would be used (Josephus reports Romans could get wholly creative with that). You could use doorways, trees, scaffolds, square frames, X’s, T’s, I’s, t’s, didn’t matter. It could even refer to impalement. The words don’t distinguish. So you can’t “assume” any shape was understood from what is written in the Bible.
We can talk about what was most common, but that only gives us the odds on what would have happened or what authors would have assumed happened. It would not constitute evidence that that is what happened or even that that is what authors had in mind.
All those caveats in place:
The most commonly attested vehicle for Roman crucifixion was the vine prop, which is described in our sources as having two components: the crux, an upright pole that would be permanently emplaced (possibly even mounted in concrete); and the patibulum, a crossbeam, which would most often be the thing carried by the condemned. It would be tied to their arms and carried across their shoulders (best depicted in the film Highlander, where the young Connor is driven out of town tied to an oxcrest, the horns of an ox, like a patibulum, his feet thus free to run). When they got to the site, the beam would be hauled up (likely with handpoles) to notch into the top of the crux. A T shape would be formed by this (not a Christian cross).
This was most common most likely because vine props were always abundantly available and thus easy to appropriate or replace. And they worked by notching a beam atop a pole. So it was easy for victims to have the beam lashed to them and carry it and thus just haul them up onto a pole already dug in, and then just nail their ankles to it (as we also have evidence was commonly done).
“a cross from a faith that died before Jesus came”
Another thing often repeated by scholars is that crucifixion was a roman punishment used ONLY for SLAVES & POLITICAL REBELS; so, in their opinion, this shows that Jesus was certainly an antiroman rebel (just like so called Zealots).
Yeah. That’s another common myth no one checks.
It’s false in three respects.
First, Babylonians, Assyrians, Persians, also crucified just about anyone (so did gods and demons: e.g. Inanna is crucified by demons; Ixion by gods). And Jews crucified blasphemers (it’s in Josephus and the Mishnah, and abundant scholarship confirms this, as I cite), and that’s the mythical charge the Gospels portray as the reason for his execution (deliberately equating that with sedition, as blasphemy against the false “god,” the Roman Emperor, thus the story has the Sanhedrin trick Pilate into killing him on that charge). So we can’t really get this out of Paul, who never says who crucified Jesus (much less for what or under what authority), so any assumption about what “Romans” crucified for wouldn’t even apply before Mark invented the Roman story.
Second, the Romans crucified any violent or disobedient non-citizen. Roman citizens were mostly exempt (they are the ones who might only be crucified for “political sedition”). But almost all subjects of the empire were not “Roman” citizens, and were subject to the same punishments as slaves (the category is peregrini). See Hengel’s Crucifixion for a study. But in short, any violence or disobedience of authority could suffice to get you crucified if you were a minor subject of Rome as almost everyone in Palestine was.
Third, the Gospels say Jesus is falsely accused. Which reminds us that that can always be the case. See Interpreting 1 Clement’s Supposed Descriptions of Fabulous Murders for a discussion of all the ways an innocent schmo could get themselves executed by the state for “crimes” they never had anything actually to do with. So we cannot infer Jesus was killed for any actual political view or activity; that could just have been the excuse invented to get him killed. This doesn’t matter for the historicity debate itself, since “why” he was killed doesn’t change whether he existed, but it does remind us that if Jesus didn’t exist, obviously he wouldn’t have been executed for politics—he would have been crucified out of demonic bloodthirstiness, under no political regime at all (and if he existed but in the 70s BC, he would have been crucified for blasphemy and by the Jewish regime, not the Roman).
So you can’t infer merely from “he was crucified” that it was for Roman reasons, therefore it was by Romans. That’s a circukar argument. You have to presume the conclusion in the premises to get the conclusion.
Richard, given the words used for crucifixion are ambiguous and refer to a wide variety of suspension punishments by all manner of cultures (not only the Romans), a modified form of the argument might go like this: in 30s Judea the Sanhedrin was not permitted to sentence criminals to capital punishment, which would include crucifixions. So we can infer when the words are used in these particular sources, it more likely means Romans, since they’re the only ones able to carry out the punishment at that time. So how would the Jewish authorities or “the Jews” still be a viable option for the word? (obviously demons or anyone else could still in principle crucify someone; just for the sake of this argument focus on the ambiguity of what earthly authorities would’ve hypothetically killed an earthly Jesus – Romans or Jews).
My thought is it’s still ambiguous, since we couldn’t rule out an illegal Jewish mob execution or an illegal kangaroo court carried it out without Roman authorization. There also appears to have been an exception for Jews who invaded sacred spaces of the temple (Edwards, Crucifixion, 2023, 131 n. 5 – citing Chapman, the Trial and Crucifixion, 2019), and we know most critical scholars argue Jesus did do some illegal action in the Temple.
Or do you just suspect John’s Gospel is incorrect the Jews didn’t have authority for capital punishment? Interested to know your thoughts. Thanks!
That’s actually not true. This could be a telephone game confusion from an unrelated administrative rule about convening courts without Roman approval (we find that in the Talmud, and the same urban legend may have circulated to the authors of John); or John is just making it up (it is, after all, ridiculous to think Pilate would ask them to try him as if he didn’t know they weren’t allowed to; so their protesting they weren’t allowed to after he ordered them to is a plot hole).
There is no evidence the Jews lost their power to execute persons under their remit, as that right was mandated by treaty with Rome which was not dissolved until the war (see my discussion of burial law in The Empty Tomb).
Indeed, stoning is routinely assumed legal in the Gospels without any protest from the authorities (Roman or Jewish): from the interpolation in John 8, the threatened stonings in John 8:59 and 10:31-33, and the execution of Stephen in Acts 7, as well as the execution staging in Luke 4:29-30 (who evidently knew more Jewish law than John: hurling off a cliff or platform was the prescribed first step of a legal stoning, as described in the Mishnah).
The classic proof-text is Josephus’s account of the execution of James (the one I believe was confused for the Christian): the point of contention was not the court’s power to execute him (that is taken for granted and thus evidently still existed in 62 AD), but to convene (and thus hear any cases at all) before the new prefect authorized it to (ὡς οὐκ ἐξὸν ἦν Ἀνάνῳ χωρὶς τῆς ἐκείνου γνώμης καθίσαι συνέδριον, Antiquities 20.202).
This has also been misinterpreted as saying the Romans had to approve every conviction or sentencing (a kind of “mixed” version of the urban legend), but that is precisely not what is said in that passage: they were only not allowed to convene a court, and permission to was routine. Hence that case was exceptional for taking place in between prefectures and thus bypassing even the pro forma approvals of Rome.
Hi Richard,
Assuming Jesus’ non-historicity do you know why Christians chose a cross, instead of, lets say a pole or tree? I know other pagan groups used cross symbols at some point but I’m not sure when. Thanks
You are asking about the shape of the cross symbol Christians used, rather than the symbol’s existence. This is important to distinguish because the words used for cross are ambiguous as to the shape. So what shape is meant is unknown until we find someone actually describing it. Our earliest description is in the Epistle of Barnabas 9:8 and he says “T” (ὁ σταυρὸς ἐν τῷ ταῦ) which would match the most common crucifixion instrument.
But other references to Christian cross signs (like ash or oil on the forehead, symbols on rings, etc.) may have meant standard pagan talismanic symbols (like a straight symmetrical cross, like a tilted X) for example, and other forms (which, yes, was ancient and everywhere, e.g. from the ankh to the ancient Hebrew tav mark of protection which is a kind of wonky lower case t shape; even the chi-rho predates Christianity as a pagan symbol). So we can’t assume they even mean the same thing every time.
The earliest reference to a “cross” shape (like a lower case t) in Christian use is abstract, like saying a ship’s mast is a symbol because it represents the safety and helmsmanship of Jesus of whatever. That a mast has a t shape is thus incidental and not meant to correlate with the instrument of execution.
Likewise Justin’s weird discourse on cross symbols in Apol. 1.60 which clearly has no notion of it describing the instrument of execution but some abstract concept (and he isn’t clear on what shape he means either). And in Dial. 40 he says the cross is prefigured in the impaling spit of lamb roasts, which is sort of almost a t cross (vaguely; the poles aren’t even connected, but they kind of create that shape), but he is clearly forcing fit here (he is speaking of abstract symbolism, not the exact form of the actual instrument of execution). In Dial. 86 he gives a bunch of other shapes, and thus clearly just thinks “any” crossing of lines will do (even crossing a river), so he has no idea of a specific shape.
So there was no clear idea. Any shape would do, for any abstract reason.
Sticking with the modern cross t shape appears to be a medieval development.
I once heard Ehrman talking on an interview wondering aloud why you were doing this in his words
so essentially questioning your motives, which I think should be a red line in scholarship politics and just social relations could be a whole separate topic thank you Richard
Oh, yes. He always uses the genetic fallacy (which is a kind of ad hominem).
He did this even at the end of last weekend’s lecture, claiming I only do this because I want to destroy Christianity (even though I have said that’s not a viable use for this debate).
Others have tried arguing that mythicists are all angry ex-fundamentalists (I was never a conservative Christian or even, actually, a believing Christian, I was a devout Taoist and never had a bad experience with Christians until after I became a secular humanist; and Thomas Brodie is a mythicist and never even renounced his devout Catholicism). But that is the same kind of genetic fallacy / ad hominem.
Ehrman originally tried to defame me by misreporting my qualifications, claiming I was not competent (the only thing to date that he has apologized for and corrected), or that I am a crazy atheist fundamentalist (he is still indirectly saying this), or that I am a crank flooding the zone with bullshit (he is still indirectly saying this), and threatened to get me fired (by saying no one like me even can get hired, much less should—it was merely inconvenient that I didn’t have a job that he can “get me fired” from, because he is so enamored of the prestige economy he cannot comprehend why any PhD would think modern professorships are a shit job or that one can make a living as a scholar without bending the knee to elite power structures).
So there is a ton of unprofessional and unethical behavior here. And it’s not just coming from him.
I enjoy some of Ehrman’s work. But he once said you were an evangelical fundamentalist who “fell hard”. That was the first time I had heard of you. Wish I had the receipts, but that was ages ago when I heard that.
Indeed. He rarely has anything right.
If Bart were to finally admit after all his years within Academia that there was even the slightest possibility that Jesus never lived on earth, this would be the most sour end to his career. What would he have to be proud of? He needs to hold on until the bitter end, continuing to deny the ton of evidence contrary to his “sacred” beliefs, knowing that he would upset billions of his followers and live the rest of his life as a turncoat pariah. Would anyone want an end to their career in this fashion? Of course not. Keep up the good work Bart and retain your beliefs to the bitter end. He is just the most wonderful truthful bible scholar who ever lived. The paradigm of honesty and open-mindedness is your guide in ALL things biblical.
Why should Ehrman think you are out to destroy Xtianity? Those that are in that game are being not particularly successful against all the damage Xtians and Xtian sects do to themselves and other Xtians; behaviours Xtian sects have engaged in it seems since the gitgo. Without the power of the sword; Xtians will destroy their own faith by their own stupidity long before we atheists even make a sizeable dent it seems to me. Every little helps of course; and we shouldn’t give up; but I consider our efforts ineffecient when compared to Xtians own behaviours in tanking their faith. The most important thing we do is give them something to hang their failure on, and so not come to their senses that they are doing it to themselves.
Great article, Dr. Carrier! As to why he keeps doing this, well, we’ve been over this before. The uncrucified ego values what it regards as its “career” over the truth! The uncrucified ego always infects the search for truth! You can see this in the joke that passes for the definition of knowledge! “justified, true belief.” Justification and belief are ego bullshit! Truth is what we accept at the end of the grieving process! Truth is what put me in the ambulance all those times! It wasn’t something I needed to “justify” or “believe”! To accept that Jesus was a myth, Ehrman would have to mourn his ego because he would have to let go of certain BELIEFS his ego clings to because the ego tangles things like “my belief(s)” and “my livelihood” together into a single construct it treats like a black box! Like a metaphysical object! Much like the Ludovico technique in A Clockwork Orange or the “prison scene” in V for Vendetta, accepting the truth can require great suffering. It can look and feel like torture! It can look and feel like going through hell, which is why the uncrucified ego can resist the truth so forcefully! I am sure that if Ehrman were to ever read this article, he would feel like you were nailing his ego to a piece of wood and you would see him devolving into denial, anger, bargaining, and depression before he got anywhere near accepting it! Or perhaps, like in The Last Temptation of Christ, a beautiful angel would appear to him in the form of a rationalization, and pull out the nails, kiss his wounds, carry his ego off the piece of wood, and allow him to just move on with his life as if nothing ever happened! I’ve seen it before!
The resurrected ego, on the other hand, craves truth and justice! It knows it has no “career” except revolution! It is not reluctant to practice self-sacrifice in order to bring this revolution about!
Could you address the new study arguing that the TF is authentic?
That’s Schmidt. I will write it up eventually. But for a quick take see my comment elsewhere.
Not directly related to this, but do you have any intentions to respond to the likes of Alan Cameron and Peter Brown (a devout Christian) who assert that the conversion of pagans was pretty much a peaceful and voluntary affair despite the significant evidence otherwise, as collected by authors like Catherine Nixey or Ramsey MacMullen?
I’m unaware of what Cameron has said. Brown is always an apologist about this stuff and not honestly wearing his historian hat when he says things like that. One hardly need a reply; you can tell from what he does and doesn’t say that he doesn’t have the goods.
I can’t say “everything” Nixey and MacMullen (and Charles Freeman) have said on this is correct, because I have not examined every single thing they have said on it. But I have read critical reviews and I can tell from the reviews themselves that their critique is weak tea, which inclines me to suspect Nixey et al. are on balance correct.
I can speak for my own studies: early medieval Christianity was a course I took for my history major at UC Berkeley and it involved a ton of reading including in primary sources like the Royal Frankish Annals and other works, which aren’t even hiding the fact but literally proud of it that violent compulsion and lateral and vertical political threats were used to convert “the pagans” of Europe. There was not a single voluntary “society wide” conversion to Christianity. Not one.
There were voluntary conversions within societies, though even those are hard to establish as consensual. If you need to convert to hold office, get food or justice, or even receive help rather than shunning from your neighbors in a world where exile or isolation is a death sentence, it is not really honest to say that was “peaceful and voluntary.” Coercion is not limited to violence.
But the massive and consistent repeated strategy of converting foreign kings by diplomatic threat or bribery, and then letting them compel their citizens to share the gods of their kings—and when that fails, literally burning everything down and killing everyone until they relent—is in no way peaceful or voluntary. That you convert with a sword pointed at you does not count as peaceful just because you comply and no blood is shed.
We see this already with the effort to enforce the Theodosian imposition of death or exile for anyone who refused to convert in the horrifically violent anti-pagan pogroms of late antique Gaza and Alexandria. Pagan resistance (and its being consistently crushed by prolonged popular and state terrorism) is covered in studies well beyond MacMullen and gang. See David Frankfurter’s Religion in Roman Egypt: Assimilation and Resistance, Mercedes García-Arenal & Yonatan Glazer-Eytan, Forced Conversion in Christianity, Judaismand Islam: Coercion and Faith in Premodern Iberia and Beyond, and David Kling’s chapter “Conversion by Coercion: Jews and Pagans (400–1500)” in the Oxford History of Christian Conversion.
And it didn’t end there. Don’t forget the genocidal and mass-state-coercive effort to “convert” the American Indians—up to and including kidnapping their kids en masse and compelling them to go to Christian schools, mass-murdering noncompliers, and actively misleading tribes to believe they’ll get better treatment if they convert, and all the other evil bullshit American Christian nationalists pulled in the 19th century, and that the Spanish pulled in the 17th and 18th centuries before that.
It is insulting to pretend this was all “peaceful and voluntary.” That is a horrific revisionism that belongs only in the sneering disingenuous propaganda of Neonazis and Neoconfederates—and their enablers.
Brown reviewed Cameron’s book here: https://www.nybooks.com/articles/2011/04/07/paganism-what-we-owe-christians/
I think a book-length treatment of the topic would be extremely valuable. I’ve been sort of working on one myself but obviously I don’t have the accolades or resources of a professional historian. To me, the evidence of a massive cultural and literal genocide by the standards of the geneva convention is shockingly self-evident, yet what is even more shocking is that the word ‘genocide’ does not seem to be even ever lightly suggested as the remotest possibility from what I’ve seen of the scholarship, even those critical of the ideas of people like Brown.
The conquest of North America has been dubbed a genocide by numerous scholars that I’ve documented, so it’s not like it’s totally beyond the pale to judge past events by more modern ideas. Perhaps it’s like you mention with Jesus historicism. People are too afraid to mention the idea of the ‘g’ word for the controversy it might cause to the point of even damaging their careers.
Definitely.
It’s like “racism.” Racists tell themselves that means “card-carrying member of the KKK actually gunning down darkies in the street” and no one else is a racist, therefore they “cannot” be racist because all they do is distrust and dislike black people as tending more than everyone else to be criminals and moochers.
Similarly, “genocide” has to mean literal ovens. If there are no ovens, it’s not genocide. And (asterisk) burning people alive on a pyre doesn’t count as an oven. Etc. When you check the actual legal and treaty definitions of genocide, it breaks this bubble of self-congratulation that you aren’t a genocide enabler. So you have to deny that definition is valid or even exists.
This is explicit in the revisionist curricula for American history, where the proponents literally say it is wrong of us to make kids feel bad about or hate their country, we need to turn them into patriots who love their country, therefore America never did anything bad and we should never teach that it ever did anything bad.
As for books: it sounds to me like those already exist. Abundantly. People just aren’t reading them or are lying about what they say. But if someone wanted to do, say, an eristic analysis of those books vs. dark-ages-and-genocide apologists like Brown (and apparently Cameron?), it should ideally be a medievalist. Or at least the lead author should be (I’d happily assist as co-author, but a monograph rather than an article really needs to be by a specialist).
As for articles: I have a chapter on this already, re: against dark-ages apologetics, in Christianity Is Not Great (and a summary in Yes, the Dark Ages Really Were a Thing), and, re: against Christianity was awesome apologetics, in No, Tom Holland, It Wasn’t Christian Values That Saved the West. Maybe I could do one on genocidal and coercive Christianity in Late Antiquity, but it’s not a high priority—it’s already the dominant consensus in the peer-reviewed literature on early medieval conversion (I cited just a few mainstream examples above), and Brown never really has any credible rebuttal to it, it’s all just obvious denialism and handwaving.
Though really, you can just play Corporate Avenger’s song “Christians Murdered Indians” and mic drop this one. Because that was just a repeat of the same strategies employed a thousand years prior.
P.S. The same likely is true even of Armenia. We have less data there, but what we do have shows the kings converted for political advantages, and then forced their subjects to comply by destroying all their temples and replacing them with churches, and eventually outlawing various non-Christian religious rituals, and assigning Christian churches power over most aspects of society (like marriages and funerals, welfare and ombudsman and other influence networks, etc.). Overall, there is evidence of a long period of tit-for-tat terrorism and political maneuvering to carrot-and-stick everyone into adopting Christianity. And contrary to myth and legend, it took a long time.
The Armenian example also reminds us of the deliberate use diplomatic over sincere reasons to convert: most conversion was regarded as a political statement of which side you were on (which magnate or which overlord, Persia or Armenia, or one satrapy against the king, and so on), and not really “being convinced it was true” or even better. This is a carrot-stick that reflects common subtle forms of coercion (like what keeps Christians dominant in the American Republican Party even today: not an open threat of violence, but a guarantee of social demotion and loss of power).
In item 14, concerning Tacitus and Josephus, you say:
“But the more pertinent point is that even if they did [mention Jesus], that is of no use to us, because neither can be established to be independent of the Gospels (OHJ §7.1, §8.9–10), and so they cannot corroborate them.”
I agree with regard to Tacitus. I’m not sure I agree with regard to Josephus.
Let’s assume for the moment that something like the Jesus incident actually happened, pretty much as advertised. Josephus was born too late to have been an eyewitness. However, he grew up in Jerusalem as the scion of a prominent priestly family. His father, and many of his father’s friends, would have known all about Jesus. They might even have been involved, one way or another. Josephus could have heard about it over the dinner table, one of Dad’s interesting stories. Such scuttlebutt might not have been accurate, but it wouldn’t need to be, if we are merely concerned with Jesus’ existence per se.
It still wouldn’t be proof, of course. I don’t mean to commit a possibiliter fallacy. But of all the usual suspects that historicists love to trot out as non-Christians mentioning Jesus, Josephus is the only one who might plausibly have heard about Jesus independent of Christian propaganda.
Likewise, if Jesus didn’t exist, then only Josephus might have been in a position to say: “Wait a minute, this is bullshit. It that had happened, I would have heard about it.”
In short: if I was sure that Josephus had asserted the existence of Jesus, I would have to take that seriously.
As it happens, of course, the relevant text is so compromised by fraud that it is useless as evidence of anything but Christian mendacity. Unless the sands of Egypt cough up an earlier manuscript, we’ll likely never know.
You are adopting an assumption credible historicists cannot: that Jesus was famous.
If you adopt that, then the silence of everyone else on the point is too improbable to credit (literally dozens of external sources should exist on that supposition: see ch. 8 of OHJ). The only way to explain away the massive ignorance of Jesus (e.g. in Pliny) and disinterest in Jesus (in dozens of first century authors), is to posit that Jesus was not famous.
But once you accept that, there is no longer any reason Josephus would ever have heard of him. Just as Philo did not, and he was literally closer to all this than Josephus. Moreover, Josephus himself would know all this. So if Josephus, like Pliny and Tacitus, heard the Jesus story from Christians relying on the Gospels (or colleagues who heard the Jesus story from Christians relying on the Gospels), he would have no reason to question it. He would already know lots of guys like that will have escaped the notice of his elders (you can’t know every convict’s story in a population of millions across a dozen administrative districts over decades) and that post-war it is impossible to fact-check them, so Josephus would do what he always does: rely on the only sources he has.
And lo, there is no evidence in the TF that Josephus did anything other than just believe the sources he had, whatever they were. But by then, those sources could as well be Gospel influenced. Since there is no evidence he had or even expected any independent evidence, we cannot argue from the premise that he did.
So even at best, it’s 50/50 whether he did, and thus 1/1, and thus multiplies the prior by 1, and so this evidence cannot increase the probability of historicity.
Meanwhile, at worst, Goldberg proved the TF is a direct paraphrase of Luke and thus absolutely is dependent on the Gospels. He says Josephus simply used Luke. That’s silly. But it doesn’t work even if granted because it destroys the village to save it. Goldberg can thus get the TF to be authentic again, but only by admitting it is not independent, and therefore it’s not longer 50/50 but nearer 10/1 or even 100/1 or more that it is derivative (indeed, gullibly so) and thus useless. And that’s the end of that.
IMO, to get any statement from Josephus to be evidence for historicity, it has to contain information establishing that he had other sources than Christians (like his elders, or documents, or something), or contain plausible information that cannot have come from Christians or polemics against Christians.
In other words, we’d need a very different passage than we have (or can even reconstruct from what we have). For example, it would look more like all his other Jesus Christ passages (as Josephus identifies several men, typographically, as Christ and Jesuses, without using either word, as many scholars have noted, explained in OHJ) and his other Sects passages (since the TF described a sect, it should match his pattern of describing Jewish sects), and in result, it would have more plausible and convincing information in it than any version of the TF now.
If we had that, then yes, a citation in Josephus would carry some positive weight (how much simply then being a function of how improbable the same results would be on the alternative explanation—more and better and less suspect information would entail a higher likelihood ratio and thus a greater impact).
Concerning the resurrected body, Paul insists that the body that is buried is not the same as the body that is resurrected ie it is sown a physical body but it is raised a spiritual body.
So it is in the actual resurrection process that every human being is given the resurrection body suits that have been made (γίνομαι / έγιναν), regardless of christian or not?
And that the natural sown bodies ie bare bones are not the ones to be re-clothed with flesh but are irrelevant and remain in the earth. One can be resurrected anywhere, a million miles from where you were buried…
Paul appears to be an annihilationist (a lot of evidence, including this, corroborates that). Meaning, he does not believe in hell or any kind of afterlife for the unsaved. They just stay dead. Only the saved are resurrected. Paul says that will include some non-Christians (faithful Jews who keep the covenant; and possibly some rare few “righteous” Gentiles, he never is clear on the latter).
Paul also implies God already has all our new bodies in a warehouse in heaven (2 Cor 5) and Jesus will come down and given them to us in a blink of an eye (1 Cor 15:52) and we will fly up into outer space to meet Jesus, who will have flown down as far as the firmament to meet us (1 Thess 4). And Paul implies maybe he got to borrow his future superbody temporarily when God flew him up to the third heaven for a meet cute (which means probably Venus: 2 Cor 12).
Otherwise, yes, all bones and such just stay behind and get melted when the lower cosmos is dissolved. The new bodies are entirely 100% replacement suits.
But where exactly someone is when they get one is unclear and might not have been well thought out. Paul implies it’s an instant swap when the horn blows, and then you fly into space in it. So you must get the new one delivered to a specific place on Earth, most likely where your corpse is, although for corpses that are scattered or don’t exist anymore, it will be some default option.
I cover Rabbinical debates on this in Empty Tomb but they had ideas like there is one bone, the coccyx, that God ensures can never be destroyed so your soul stays in there like a horcrux until the Day; others suggest your soul hovers around some sort of general location where you were killed or buried and eventually or usually falls asleep there until the Day; etc.
Paul might have been undecided on minutiae like that. In 2 Cor 12 he thinks it is possible to “not know” exactly how God makes things work, and he does not appear to believe in conscious souls separable from bodies—which is why he is noncommittal about whether his soul went up to heaven for the visit or if he was given a temp superbody or his usual body actually went up there, miraculously preserved from the ravages of angelic space. So he is comfortable resorting to “it’s a mystery” when answering questions like yours.
One thing I find so funny about the adoption of a hell cosmology in Christianity is how much it destroys the idea of God purifying the world. The annihilationist idea, that God just cleans up this imperfect creation and makes a better one, is clear and simple. But since the adoption of hell, now we just have to imagine God keeping around sin and sinners indefinitely, an entire literally perfectly imperfect world, just to satisfy sadism. It so clearly goes against the idea of God as actually not being tolerant of sin.
That’s a good point.
And indeed, it’s one of the reasons I think Paul was an annihilationist: he was on the right side of exactly that thought. If the end game is a perfect world, there can’t be sinners in it. So storing the damned is contrary to the whole scheme.
Another reason is, of course, Judaism itself, which had a strong streak of annihilationism (the dead stay dead, but the covenantals are saved). Only the most phychologically vicious fringe sects (like the Essenes) adopted hell doctrines.
If you read Josephus carefully, he does not ascribe this belief to the Pharisees. He means by eternal punishment eternal death—not being awake and alive.
So Paul’s view would be one of the things he kept from his Pharisee past. Likely because only it made sense of God’s plan as he saw it.
Origen would later expand on all this by explaining that by souls being indestructible and permanently stored it is meant that the pattern (like, we might say, a person’s DNA sequence and synaptic map, say) is stored as a thought in God’s mind, but as such cannot be conscious (just like a blueprint for a computer can’t compute things). Consciousness requires the pattern to be stamped into a body that thereby has senses and can interact with the world and think. Only the saved get that privilege after death. Everyone else only remains in God as a distant memory. Their “punishment” is being left out. And it is indeed eternal.
I got here from a “Space Jesus” link. I am (somewhat) aware of the sacrifice in heaven theory.
By his sacrifice, he justifies Yahweh when he speaks and vindicates him in his sentence. The way of the Lord needs to be put into context with the previous verse. The life and times of Jesus and the crucifixion story are imagery and prophecy.
Sacrifice – Indeed, she has received from the hand of the LORD double for all her sins.
Resurrection – Make straight in the wasteland a highway for our God! (Isa 40:2-3 NABO)
Yahweh: The God of Metallurgy
Earth is Yahweh’s Everlasting Lake of Fire and Brimstone, his furnace of roaring flames where, in his furious wrath, he will gather you up, put you in, and smelt you. If your name is not found in the Book of Life, he will refine you, remove your dross, and purify you until the Devil, the False Prophet, and the Beast (false beliefs) are cleansed from you. There, you will be tormented or, tested for purity by questioning.
*Strong’s: Brimstone 1a) divine incense, because burning brimstone was regarded as having power to purify, and to ward off disease
*Strong’s: Tormented: 1) to test (metals) by the touchstone, which is a black siliceous stone used to test the purity of gold or silver by the color of the streak produced on it by rubbing it with either metal 2) to question by applying torture
*Just as silver, bronze, iron, lead, and tin are gathered into a furnace and smelted in the roaring flames, so I will gather you together in my furious wrath, put you in, and smelt you. (Eze 22:20 NABO)
(it is better to marry than to be on fire (1Co 7:9 NABO) Be fruitful, and multiply (Gen 1:28 KJV)
The gates of the Abyss/ Hades will not prevail against it, (Mat 16:18)
Sorry, I don’t know how any of those thoughts are relevant here.
As a retired trial attorney I frequently get frustrated trying to piece together the truth of history. I had the luxury of cross-examining witnesses, obtaining authenticated records (unlike say–Third John–yeah–who wrote that? Good luck!) and so on. How awesome it would be to actually cross-examine Peter, Paul, John, even Jesus (if he even existed) to answer the thousands of questions we have! Having said that–I appreciate your good work in ancient history!
Amen.
Has anyone reviewed T. C. Schmidt’s new book on Josephus, where he argues that all (or almost all) of the TF is authentic?
Vridar is doing a series on it. I’ll blog it eventually. But it’s only been out a couple of months. It will take at least a year, often two or three, before substantive academic reviews appear in journals, for example. But for my quick take see my comment elsewhere.
Dr. Carrier wrote:
“Paul does not know Peter (or anyone) is a disciple. He believes Peter is, instead, an Apostle, one who received election by revelation (1 Cor. 15, 1 Cor. 9, Gal. 1). There are no disciples in Paul’s letters.”
In Paul’s time was there a definite distinction between Disciples and Apostles, and were those the specific terms they would have used to make that distinction. And so we have anyway of knowing that Paul specifically would have made that distinction and used those specific terms to make that distinction? Could it be possible that he simply wasn’t concerning about the distinction between those type of followers, to clearly make the distinction between the two?
If he was never know to have used the term “Disciple” in any of his writings, how do we know for certain that was due to the fact that he knew no one fitting that criteria, as opposed to it simply being a term that he might not have been familiar with or was in the habit of using, or simply didn’t feel the need to distinguish them in that way.
The only relevant datum is that there is no evidence for disciples in Paul and therefore “Paul mentions disciples” cannot be used as evidence for a historical Jesus.
We are not arguing Paul says there were no disciples. We are arguing that you cannot assume he knew any.
So speculating about what distinctions he would make if there were is idle. That still can’t conjure evidence he knew any.
But, that caveat aside:
Disciple means “student” as opposed to Apostle which means “one sent.” The latter does not entail sitting at someone’s feet (in fact Paul only mentions being sent by revelation; so whether he knew of being sent personally before Jesus died cannot be ascertained from what Paul says, hence the above point), while the former does. So it would be evidence for historicity if Paul said anyone was a disciple (a “student” of Jesus). But it cannot be evidence for historicity if Paul only says people were apostles, because that does not specify how (and since he includes himself and implies the same of everyone else in 1 Cor 9, Paul appears to only know of people being sent by revelation—this is all but explicit in the underlying Greek of Romans 10:14–15).
It is possible Jesus existed and he had no students and apostles were all sent by revelation after he died (Peter and gang being more like fangirls than actual sidekicks, capitalizing on the death of someone they barely knew but could sell as the messiah). It’s also possible Jesus himself made a point of calling his students apostles and so the idea of calling them anything else came later. But the question we are asking is not whether what Paul says is evidence against such things, but whether what Paul says is evidence for any historicist scenario at all. The answer is no. And that’s that.
The argument from silence is separate from this, and arises not from the lack of the terminology, but the lack of the distinction being made at all, e.g. Paul never faced the argument that “they were hand-picked in life and sat at his feet and you didn’t” which is evidence against historicity regardless of how one theorizes their way around the terminology. Historicists will go around insisting Paul “did” face that argument, but there is no evidence of that, and ample evidence against.
And this is no more clear when historicists fabricate evidence that doesn’t exist (which only gives away the game), like when they try to claim his throwing shade on the “superapostles” means they met Jesus, when Paul himself says it was because they were better orators than him—and thus Paul didn’t have to answer any claim that they met Jesus. Their own evidence proves their claim false. Which is a kind of own goal. But historicists are like Donald Trump: they think you’ll believe anything they say just because they said it, and will guffaw the moment you point out they just lied to you.
Richard, can you give an example of a mythical figure who was believed to be human, but resided in a celestial realm? Thanks!
If you mean, “was originally celestial and later portrayed as human” then:
Osiris. Zeus. Uranus. Cronus. Adonis. Belus. Hermes-Thoth (as Hermes Trismegistus). Even the Mycenaean Dionysus (attested in linear B tablets as a celestial god alongside Zeus prior to being placed in history) and the Roman Romulus (who began as the sky-spirit Quirinus), and probably Orion and Perseus (who likely began as a star god, later euhemerized into a deified man like Zeus had been).
There are also celestials (angels and demons) who become or pretend to be mortals in human history in various Jewish myths, which is comparable (e.g. Asmodeus and Raphael in Tobit; Melchizedek in Hebrews and the DSS; the angel who wrestles with Jacob in the OT; etc.). Some (e.g. Melqart, Baal, Inanna) began as celestials or sky gods and portrayed as living and acting in human lands and history, just not as mortals, though this is similar (taking a sky god, and making them an earth-history god).
Many more were invented as terrestrial myths, i.e. men who didn’t really exist but were imagined as hidden or distant heroes or earth-spirits (e.g. as probably for Hercules and Pelops and Asclepius and Zalmoxis) and only later portrayed as historical humans with local histories.
But if you mean, “only existed as a human in myth but then was believed to be residing in the heavens” then we’re talking about nearly every demigod in the entire pantheons of Greece and Rome, and several Jewish heroes (Moses, Elijah, Methuselah). Relatively few of these were ever real people (e.g. actual historical emperors were elevated as celestial demigods; Hadrian deified into a celestial his lover Antinous; etc.).
Thank you. I think that last category is what I was getting at. I’m looking for evidence for “the belief in a person who was celestial and fully human would not be unique to the early Christians if they did believe that.” I think what I’m hearing is that other scholars’ confusion between “human” and “terrestrial” is not a reasonable confusion for scholars since examples of the belief in figures that are human and not terrestrial is abundant. Do I have the right? (Furthermore, these examples help me make the distinction in my mind.)
Yes. Indeed the same arguments existed among pagans as to how “human” Hercules was when alive or after deification as existed among Christians about how “human” Jesus was when on Earth and after his resurrection. Those disputes could get quite heated. There wasn’t anything new about that. The theology and metaphysics of demigods and deified mortals long predates Christianity’s adaptations of it. We even have Philo discussing the metaphysics of the bodies of angels, and suggesting when they pose as humble humans they are wearing human flesh to do it (and not just casting illusion spells).
For a fuller discussion of the ambiguity of the words “man” (which included immortals, and thus angels were men) and “mortal” (which meant specifically wearing a body of flesh, which Jesus did only briefly) see my article Can Paul’s Human Jesus Not Be a Celestial Jesus?. But for a more direct parallel see the opening section of Jesus from Outer Space where I discuss Plutarch’s discourse on the metaphysics of Osiris, being a celestial entity, then briefly wearing a mortal body of human flesh in the sky below the moon to be thus killed by Typhon (Set). That exactly matches the model my thesis proposes for the neighboring cult of Christianity at its beginning.
So precedents abound.
Richard, in your estimation, when did the belief in the existence of the angel referred to as Jesus, start among Jews? Was it during the 1st century BCE or the 2nd century BCE? In your estimation, was that angel Jesus worshipped by any Jews before the revelation to Cephas?
We have no way of knowing.
The angel’s Jesus-matching description first appears in Philo (there are hints prior but nothing as complete). As does the evidence that it might already have been known by the name Jesus.
That dates btw. 20 and 40 AD. But Philo uses it as if it’s a known thing and not some new thing he is arguing for, so that means it predates him. But how long before?
Without his sources we can’t know. Elaborate angelology begins before the DSS. So angelological thinking like Philo’s, which is referenced in the DSS, appears post-exilic, as it replicates the angelologies of Persian Zoroastrianism, and we see this in things like 1 Enoch and references to secret angelological knowledge the DSS authors suggest should not be casually mentioned in public. So angelology enters Judaism around the same time as apocalypoticism, messianism, and resurrection. But we don’t know the content of that angelological thinking (beyond random bits of data). So we don’t know when the Logos archangel was developed, or when it was “built out” into the form the Christians used for Jesus.
Logos theologies appear outside Judaism (e.g. in Osiris cult and beyond) and seem to have a Stoic theological origin, which dates them c. 200 BC. So a syncretism of Persian, Stoic, and Jewish concepts into Philo’s Logos angelology would be a good fit for that century or the next.
Moreover, while the angel predates Philo in all its attributes, it is possible he is the first to link it to Zech. 6 and thus the name Jesus (though it looks like he is affirming and explaining an idea that predates him even on that detail).
But either way, it is possible the history goes: Philo in 20 AD —> Peter in 30 AD —> Paul in 50 AD. But the evidence suggests it’s more like [Lost Angelological Text / Biblical Commentary c. 200–100 BC] —> Philo in 20 AD —> Peter in 30 AD —> Paul in 50 AD.
But we have no data to know which model it is or whether it’s some other. It could be Rabbi Whositwhatever in 5 AD —> Philo in 20 AD —> Peter in 30 AD —> Paul in 50 AD. We just don’t know.
I have heard claims that pre-Islamic Judaism (and Christianity) weren’t strictly monotheistic, and strict monotheism (Tawheed) is an Islamic innovation. Post-Islamic Judaism became monotheistic through influence from Islam in that direction. How true is that, in your view?
It’s an equivocation fallacy.
Judaism and Christianity can only be described as henotheistic and monolatrist (not one god, only one “supreme” god, and only one worshipped) if you accept angels and demons as gods (which functionally they are; refusing them the title is a product of monolatry not metaphysics, i.e. it’s just specious semantics). But once you do that, Islam is also henotheistic and monolatrist, and not monotheistic, and never has been. Since it, too believes other gods (that it calls angels and demons, just like Jews and Christians always did).
One can quibble over monolatry when it comes to worshipping Jesus (and some minor Jewish sects worshipped angels, too), but that appears to be substitutionary monolatry, i.e. Jesus is not being worshipped separately from God but as God’s representative, like kissing the ring of a king’s ambassador: not a recognition the ambassador is the king, but that the ambassador is standing in for the king and thus the kiss is transferred conceptually to the king, not the ambassador. Jewish angel worship appears to have been the same thing (and we see this in the Rabbinical idea that the God worshipped as the burning bush or the visitant to Moses on Sinai was really an angel, the Metatron or Angel of the Presence, standing in for God, through whom God speaks).
And once we acknowledge that, Islam’s treatment of Mohammed is not different enough to make it special (there are prayers of intercession to Mohammed, Mohammed is treated as holy, e.g. you can’t draw him, which is a form of deification and worship, etc., he is very much like Saints in Catholicism, which are just the new gods in a henotheistic pantheon). They also accept angelic representatives of God.
At best, Islam is more literally monolatrist today (trying to scrub any divinity from Mohammed and the angels), but it’s still just monolatrist, not monotheist. It accepts many gods, the angels and Mohammed among them. It just doesn’t “call” them gods (just like Jews and Christians didn’t, an effect of their monolatry). And of course Islam is still not thoroughly monolatrist. They still give Mohammed divine honors (by disallowing blaspheming or depicting him). They just don’t “call” it that. So it’s just semantics really.
Great text, I also watched you on Godless Engineer talking about all of this. One thing though, as to point 7 – we don’t have any writings from the supposed mythicist/anti-orthodox Christian sects, understandable, they were erased from history. But what about Jews themselves? They were not. You write: “The Babylonian rabbis would be keen to debunk an immediate Jewish threat to their faith”. Well, wouldn’t it be even more important to the Palestinian/Mediterranean Jews, who were forced to watch someone tries to steal their own religion from them? And yet all (?) the gainsay we have is a little remark in “Dialogue with Trypho”.
You could say they actually had more important stuff to deal with back then (wars, rebellions, fallen Temple, etc.). Still, absolutely no “listen, we were there, it’s all false” preserved? It does puzzle me a bit.
That’s my point, though: that is precisely what is not happening in the West.
When Paul shifted recruitment to the Gentiles, the Jewish sect shrank into insignificance (according to Epiphanius, it does not appear to have survived within the borders of the Roman Empire at all). So the Christians were no longer poaching Jews on any significant scale and therefore were no more a threat than the three dozen other fringe sects of Judaism we know were going about then (from the Herodians to the Galileans to the Dositheans and other various Samaritan sects or indeed even the nine or so different Essene sects and so on). We have no critiques of any of those sects, either. So clearly either (a) fringe sects were of no concern to Jewish thought, or (b) if they were, not a single critique was chosen by anyone to preserve. Christianity is just one of dozens in that same condition.
This is compounded by the fact that Judaism became an enemy of the state in the RE but not the PE, and almost right after Christianity began. After the Jewish War it was no longer wise for the Jews to be concerned about recruiting Gentiles, and fringe sects generally appear to have vanished into insignificance, as Jerusalem was depopulated and much of Judea repopulated with Gentiles and the remaining Jews scattered (many sold to the PE as slaves and thus no longer even in the RE).
So in the West, the Jews and Christians were no longer competing for converts. Insofar as Jews were leaving, they had many options (pagan sects abounded) and so Christianity was not a peculiar problem. And yet no Jewish tracts attacking pagan cults survive either. So again, ether (a) pagans poaching Jews were of no concern to Jewish thought anymore, or (b) if they were, not a single critique was chosen by anyone to preserve. Christianity is just one of dozens of optional cults in that same condition.
Hence the only actual threat to Judaism was attempts to take over Judaism, i.e. Jewish (not Gentile or apostate) Christians. These would be people who could start filling Sanhedrins and taking over Rabbinical control of Judaism itself (they were not really that popular, but it only takes the fear to motivate the attacks). Hence that is why that is the only version of Christianity the Talmud attacks: Jewish Christians.
This would be why the Jerusalem Talmud lacks any of these attacks (although it’s fragmentary so maybe it did, but the matching sections lack it, so it looks like it didn’t). There was no significant Jewish Christian presence under hostile Gentile Christian rule to pose a threat to Judaism (as in, an internal threat, which would require attacking its legitimacy; under the heel of Christian empire, attacking its legitimacy would be useless, and indeed even bring hell down on the Talmudists, so it’s explicable why they’d avoid the subject there).
Sir : I recently read OHJ and JFOS and am currently re-reading Jesus Interrupted. Until JFOS I never once in my life contemplated that Jesus might not have been real in any sense at all. My big revelation on completing JFOS …. “of course!” … A lot of things which never made sense to me now suddenly make a lot of sense! Jesus was to Paul as Gabriel was to Muhammed or Moroni was to Smith (I think you make that point). Jesus however had the benefit of interested parties trying to make him a real character acting in the world. In the same way that Dawkins I think mentioned that evolution made him intellectually satisfied … so does mythicism suddenly make the world make a lot more sense!
That’s how it has struck me, too. Like a eureka moment. After a long time of being against it. So I share your perspective.
Update: Ehrman has responded (sort of) to this one point alone in Does the Book of Hebrews Indicate Jesus Ever Came To Earth? A Response to Richard Carrier. But all he does is agree with the point I did make, and never address any of my evidence for the point he wants to deny. Again.
There he mentions OHJ but really only quotes JFOS again, showing no sign of actually reading OHJ, and still shows no knowledge of the evidence I presented for “the inhabited world” being ambiguous enough to include everything below the moon (birds and demons and all—the world of all flesh). He never responds to any of that evidence. He entirely acts like we never even presented any (as I said, it’s in OHJ, Ch. 5, elements 36–39; and he is referred to that evidence in my section on Hebrews, p. 541).
And yet Ehrman agrees I am “absolutely right” that Hebrews is everywhere ambiguous about where any of the things it mentions happened and there is no evidence in Hebrews of it happening on Earth. It would be different had the author chosen to write “Earth” (gês), as then there would be no ambiguity. But they chose the vague term “inhabited area” (oikoumenê) which does not specify that it excludes the air (which is also inhabited by flesh).
There is also no single piece of evidence against it happening on Earth. But that evidence comes from surveying it all, which Ehrman never does. In other words, Hebrews is only evidence because it is “everywhere” ambiguous, not just because it is occasionally ambiguous (on the mathematical logic of this point see OHJ, pp. 518–19, with n. 13, which Ehrman ignores and thus never rebuts).
Hence my conclusion on Hebrews in OHJ is:
And yet I scored this as weak evidence:
Hebrews along with “the other ‘gospels’ found in Paul’s letters and in the pseudo-Pauline letter to the Colossians” altogether is 3/5 likely (at best) and 2/5 likely (at worst). That means if we combine the pervasive silence of Hebrews (not of isolated individual passages, but the entirety of Hebrews, and especially places where we expect a mention of an earthly location, like Hebrews 5 and 9) with the same for Colossians (ditto) and all Paul’s quoted creeds (ditto) all of this silence is, IMO, about twice as likely if Jesus didn’t exist than if he did (2 chances this is a coincidence for every 5 chances it is not). But, granting as much as possible to the historicist, I am willing to say maybe it’s better than that, at 3 chances this is a coincidence for every 5 chances it’s not. Both are around twice as likely, but the one slightly favors historicity and the other slightly disfavors it.
That’s pretty weak. Strong evidence gets you ratios like 10/1 or 100/1 or even a thousand or million or billion to one. So I am not saying Hebrews “proves” Jesus did not exist. Rather, it only accumulates evidence that makes that a bit more likely.
Ehrman has said nothing to challenge any of this. He does not even know that this is what he is supposed to be arguing against. Because he will not read the study.
-:-
See also the next comment.
Note for example the Septuagint Greek of Proverbs 8:26 says the “highest inhabited” places of the world are “under” heaven, which thus means everything below the moon. Hence Luke and Revelation say Satan’s dominion (Luke 4; Rev 12) is the oikoumenê and we know that includes the air (Ephesians 2:2). In Revelation, in the end times Satan is expelled from the air down to the Earth (Rev 12:9). In Acts 17:31 God will judge the oikoumenê which we know cannot exclude the air below the moon where demons inhabit and control affairs below. And Philo agrees “the whole inhabited world (πανταχοῦ τῆς οἰκουμένης), no part of which has escaped [God’s] domination, neither the denizens of land nor of sea nor of the air” (Spec. Leg. 3:8).
So while oikoumenê can mean just the Roman Empire, or all the civilizations of the Earth, it can also mean all inhabited places whatsoever, so, it can include even where demons inhabit as well as birds fly.
Therefore the word by itself does not tell us what an author meant. We have to look at the totality of what that author says and their contemporaries say, in order to discern what they (and their audience) understood them to mean. That means we cannot assume one thing or another (we cannot, like Ehrman, “assume” it means earth in order to argue it means earth; since it could mean either, we need to see where the evidence tips as to which concept of inhabited places they are intending in these peculiar early texts).
Want a good laugh? I saw a comment on youtube where some guy claims he “fact checked” your bibliography in OHJ and said not a single citation you gave is peer reviewed.
Which besides being false to the point of absurdity is also an own goal: he is also thus saying Bart Ehrman has never been peer reviewed, nor has any defense of the historicity of Jesus. He might want to rethink his rhetoric!
BTW, the citation list for OHJ is freely available so you can check for yourself how wildly false his claim is. If “nothing” cited there is peer reviewed, then peer reviewed literature simply does not exist to cite.
Is there a way to quickly check if a source/book is peer reviewed, like a database or something?
Not really, no. And that’s becoming a problem (even physics is starting to get swamped with bogus journals and the ever-increasing peer review crisis).
There is no simple one-stop-shop for this. Nothing quick. Nothing easy. Nothing entirely reliable.
It is a detective task, case by case. I discuss some tricks of the trade and resources to help in A Vital Primer on Media Literacy and A Primer on Actually Doing Your Own Research. Overall, you just have to check what a publisher typically publishes and what level of quality it is.
But in general: for books, all academic presses are usually peer-reviewed (see my Flaviana discussion). Outside that there is no reliable way to tell. Some are a mixed bag (e.g. T&T Clark and Prometheus were not consistent, sometimes peer reviewing and sometimes not). Some are not at all (Simon & Schuster or HarperOne, for example, have fact-checkers only for purposes of avoiding lawsuits; they don’t do any real peer review in a scholarly sense). And you always have to remember that peer review has limitations. It only is supposed to test for quality of argument; it is not an endorsement of the conclusion. And it is highly prone to politics and bias or even grudges or laziness (so it has a significant false positive and false negative rate).
Journals are a different but similar story.
With regard to your comment above that mentioned T&T Clark, is there any way to know which T&T Clark books are peer-reviewed and which aren’t? You’ve said elsewhere that Maurice Casey’s “Jesus: Evidence and Argument or Mythicist Myths?” (T&T Clark 2014) was not peer reviewed. How do you know this?
There is no sure way to know (that press will never say which books it subjected and which it didn’t), but a sufficient indicator is the complete lack of any academic rigor or standards that even a lazy peer review would block. That’s how we know Casey’s wasn’t peer reviewed. It doesn’t even look academic at all. It’s a Tuesday internet rant put to paper. It has less academic rigor and quality than Ehrman’s HarperOne volume, a press which never peer reviews academically, and that popmarket HarperOne volume is already dismally non-academic.
Q: “How do you explain references to Jesus in Josephus’ Antiquities and Tacitus’ Annals?”
Evidence: Even though debated, Josephus (~93–94 CE) mentions James as “the brother of Jesus, called Christ,” and Tacitus (~116 CE) refers to Christus executed under Pontius Pilate. These are non-Christian sources supporting a historical Jesus.
Q: “Could a mythical figure really have inspired an entire Jewish sect in the 1st century without anyone challenging it?”
Evidence: Early Christianity arose very quickly in a historical context, with martyrdom and persecution, suggesting there was a real founder figure.
Q: “How do you explain multiple independent sources (Mark, Matthew, Luke, John) with overlapping events?”
Evidence: While details differ, the core narrative of a Galilean preacher crucified under Pilate is consistent, which is historically plausible.
None of that is true. You’ve been misled by apologists and are not being told the truth. You should ask why.
All mythical heroes had multiple consistent myths (Hercules, Osiris, Aesop, Romulus, etc.). That is standard for myths. So that cannot tell the difference between myth and history. And like all myths, the Gospel myths actually are very inconsistent and lack any reliable evidence of having any sources (none identify their authors or sources, all were written in a land and language foreign to Jesus, a lifetime later, and their most salient stories are either unknown or contradicted by earlier literature like 1 Clement and the Pauline Epistles). Yet are manifestly mythical and not historical in genre and content. So there is no reliable evidence in them. This is thoroughly proven in On the Historicity of Jesus §10.
These are among the reasons I changed my position from a historicist to a mythicist: when I checked claims like these, they all fell apart, as being just modern myths and lies. The elite are not telling you the truth. So it’s your choice whether you continue to be their dupe. Or join the wise.
On Josephus and Tacitus
Carrier claims the passages are interpolations or derivative of the Gospels.
Scholarly consensus: While Josephus’ Testimonium Flavianum has later Christian embellishments, most scholars agree a core reference to Jesus existed. The shorter Arabic version and linguistic analysis suggest Josephus did mention “Jesus called Christ,” his brother James, and his crucifixion under Pilate.
Tacitus’ reference to “Christus” executed by Pilate (Annals 15.44) is widely considered authentic; Tacitus had access to Roman records and shows no sympathy toward Christians, making fabrication unlikely.
Even if these texts reflect what Christians believed, they still indicate that Jesus was understood as a recent historical figure executed under Pilate, not purely mythical.
On the Gospels Being Myths
Carrier argues the Gospels are late, anonymous, and mythical.
Historical method: Historians don’t treat the Gospels as literal biographies, but they use critical criteria (multiple attestation, embarrassment, contextual plausibility) to extract probable facts.
Example: The crucifixion is almost universally accepted; inventing a humiliated, crucified messiah goes against Jewish expectations of a victorious deliverer. This suggests the story is rooted in reality.
On Paul’s Letters
Carrier says Paul only knew a celestial Christ.
Counterpoint: Paul refers to meeting “James, the brother of the Lord” (Galatians 1:19) and “Cephas/Peter,” key leaders of the early movement. The most natural reading is that James was Jesus’ biological brother. Paul also refers to Jesus being “born of a woman” (Gal. 4:4), “descended from David” (Rom. 1:3), and crucified—clear historical references.
On Silence and Destroyed Documents
Carrier suggests Christian suppression erased contrary evidence.
Problem: There’s no evidence of a widespread purge of documents mentioning Jesus. Most minor figures in antiquity were not documented extensively; the lack of early Roman records is normal for obscure provincial preachers. The fact that we have any mentions (Paul, Josephus, Tacitus) is notable.
On Mythical Parallels
Carrier argues Jesus resembles other dying-and-rising gods (Osiris, Romulus, Hercules).
Critical review: Most supposed parallels are either much later or superficial. Jewish apocalypticism provides a unique context for Jesus. Unlike pagan gods, Jesus was tied to a specific time, place, and ethnic context.
Ehrman and other secular historians emphasize: mythic tropes can exist around historical figures (Alexander the Great had legends about divine birth), but that doesn’t mean the person didn’t exist.
On Scholarly Consensus
Carrier claims mainstream historians are deceived or biased.
Reality: The consensus (among atheists, agnostics, Christians, Jews) is that Jesus existed as a historical figure. Carrier’s mythicist position is a minority view not because of a conspiracy, but because his arguments have not convinced specialists in Greco-Roman and Second Temple Jewish history.
Conclusion
Historians like Bart Ehrman, Paula Fredriksen, and Maurice Casey argue:
Jesus existed as a Jewish apocalyptic preacher.
Myths and theology developed around him, but the historical core remains: crucifixion under Pilate, association with followers like James and Peter, and activity in Galilee and Judea.
Mythicist arguments often misrepresent the historical method and overstate parallels or silences.
You have to look at the evidence, not opinion, because opinion derives from the evidence. If the consensus doesn’t follow from the evidence, then the consensus has no value.
See On Evaluating Arguments from Consensus and Galatians 1:19, Ancient Grammar, and How to Evaluate Expert Testimony.
But also, the consensus you are citing is old. On Josephus the trend has been to move away from that old consensus. Hence Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can’t Cite Opinions Before 2014. And more peer reviewed studies by more scholars have come out since then that are on my side on this. In fact, the majority of all studies since 2014 side with me, not the old consensus.
Hardly anyone is talking about Tacitus, by contrast, but even Bart Ehrman and Margaret Williams agree with me that Tacitus cannot be established as independent of the Gospels and so is not usable as evidence. Just like Josephus (see link).
So does the overwhelming scholarly consensus today. So if you actually believe you should side with the consensus (and not question the consensus), as you just pretended above, then you have to agree with me on this. Right?
You are stuck here in a self-contradiction. Good luck.
Already addressed in the article you are commenting on.
Just repeating refuted assertions does not get you out of your position having been refuted.
There is. I document this extensively in chapter 8 of On the Historicity of Jesus. Entire studies from major academics recently confirmed this. And it is in fact the mainstream consensus. So again you are rejecting the consensus, despite vast evidence supporting that consensus in this case.
I myself have argued this. So this isn’t any argument against me. See chapter 8 of On the Historicity of Jesus.
False. In historicizing tales, they begin from day one (Mark is already fully emulative of mythic tropes and sources). Before that we have no historicizing tales (1 Clement, Hebrews, Paul, even 1 Peter: see chapter 11 of On the Historicity of Jesus).
I myself have argued this. So this isn’t any argument against me. The question is how often, not whether. See chapter 6 of On the Historicity of Jesus.
If you are convinced by their arguments for historicity, then you are not good at critical reasoning. And that only proves my point. You can’t think your way to a correct conclusion here because you aren’t thinking competently from the evidence. You are just letting yourself be duped by the follies of others.
Fredriksen’s premises are false; Casey’s arguments are wildly fallacious, some rejected even by his peers, and all were decisively refuted under peer review (along with Ehrman’s); and Ehrman’s arguments are both using false premises and logical fallacies, as established in the article here you are commenting on.
Desde que he leído este blog he dudado de la historicidad de Jesucristo(y eso que no comprado los libros),pero me sigue pegando como se relaciona está información con el reciente estudio que confirma la veracidad de la sábana santa o el hecho de que varios cantantes y actores hagan alusión a cosas demoníacas.
Pd:¿Cuál es la probabilidad de que,incluso aceptando que Jesús no existió como figura histórica,el cristianismo siga siendo verdadero?
Google Translated:
The second question is answered with “a vanishingly small probability” (see Christianity Is a Conspiracy Theory and Ten Ways the World Would Be Different If God Existed). Because the leading theory of “no Jesus” is essentially just the same religion (e.g. if it were then true, Jesus existed and died and rose in the sky, exactly as the first Christians thought; etc.).
The Shroud of Turin is a completely different question. Christianity neither needs nor could be proved by its authenticity. And the evidence of its being fake is overwhelming. All the fake findings used to bolster its authenticity are bogus propaganda, not real data. See summaries by James Tabor and Nicholas Allen.
Similarly, demon stories are all bogus. Either outright fake or simply misunderstood normal things that have nothing actually to do with demons. That varies case by case. But there are some examples in Joe Nickell’s study Entities.
Google Translated:
Richard, I’d be interested in your thoughts on the angels suspended in outer space in the Enochic literature.
2 Enoch (often dated to the first century, though some date much later), chapter 7, describes the punishment of fallen angels in the second heaven. The longer recension of 2 Enoch contains the Slavonic term visjashe (“hanging”) in three manuscripts (J, R, and P). The shorter recension does not include this term. Charlesworth in OTP, vol 1, pp 112-113, notes we cannot be sure what “visjashe” means here, but that “viseti” means either “to depend upon” or “to be suspended”. He notes this verb is used of hanging (= crucifixion) in Lk 23.39, Acts 5.30, 10.39.
John Granger Cook, (Crucifixion in the Ancient Mediterrainian World), who disagrees with Sammuelson that the term and meaning of crucifixion can be quite so broad in valence, has informed me he’s unsure whether this scene in 2 Enoch would refer to a crucifixion by his understanding of that term. But again, he takes a more nuanced and specific valence to be meant. It seems by Sammuelson’s reckoning, we’d have here a clear suspension punishment, i.e., crucifixion, in outer space.
Whether we want to quibble over a hyper-specific meaning of “crucifixion” would then determine if we labeled it that or not, rather than a more general suspension punishment in the outer regions of the cosmos. Thoughts? Possible cosmic crucifixion?
Unfortunately 2 Enoch has been redacted so many times over so many centuries it is no longer possible to ascertain what in it goes back to antiquity.
I would agree that the longer recension certainly means villains being hung as a torture in outer space (it says both “hung” and “torture” unmistakably; the minutiae of how they are hung, on what, with what instruments, and whether they are dead or can even die, is irrelevant here—see my point about the semantics of the words for “crucify” in ancient Greek in OHJ, Ch. 4.32).
But the idea of the purer heavens containing villains at all does not seem to cohere with any ancient worldview. If the text had said “the firmament” or “aer” or “in the clouds” or even “on the moon” we’d be in the ancient context of thinking. But the idea of having hells in the second and even fifth heaven is alien to antiquity (they were too pure for that; the moon and firmament were ever as far as impure spirits would ever go or be imprisoned). It therefore more likely derives from a medieval redactor.
So the notion does not inform ancient thought enough to be useful. Though it is worth footnoting. I hadn’t thought of that before.
I know that you are very busy, but you may want to check out: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aKP_YkwZEgk. Bart Ehrman is a guest on History for Atheists (the last episode). They did at least read page 590 in OHJ. They are comparing Mythicism to Geocentricism – not worthy of a scholarly response. It kind of annoys me that Dr. Ehrman is lecturing us on probability.
Yeah, thank you. I was informed. I’ll look into that soon. It sounds like a waste of time, with maybe a needed rewording for clarity in OHJ at best (they mistake me for saying the phrases are in the verses rather than the constructions, missing my use of the word “compare,” when the verses reflect the grammatical constructions, not the exact phrase that would be used in Galatians), but nothing substantive to address. But I haven’t checked yet. Hume’s Apprentice seems on point about it.
Note, that on p. 590 I am arguing those are the constructions Paul would have plugged those words into, not that those words are there. I can see how that mistake can be made and thus a better wording would do there (I’ll add it to the errata page), though a skilled grammaticist should have figured that out by what is in the verses cited.
I also notice all of this seems to be answered explicitly in OPH, e.g. I show Paul using the phrase “brothers in the flesh” for biological relation, I cite ten new independent studies supporting my premise that all baptized Christians are brothers of the Lord, I address the silly argument that Paul would have specified Peter was also a brother—no author would do that, it’s duplicating something obvious, like taking the bother to say the Pope was a Christian, and moreover, the grammatical construction already entails it so it didn’t need to be redundantly stated (I show that this was inadvertently proved by Howard); and so on.
So it sounds like their discussion is already obsolete.
Wow, reading that Covington article I realized I had forgotten that RJ Hoffman had written a piece years ago calling into question Galatians 1:19 James “brother of the lord” as definitely meaning biological brother rather than an adopted cultic brother. It’s funny since Ehrman, Dennis MacDonald, and others have cited Hoffman so many times as being some sort of bold, heavy-weight anti-mythicist champion, who really tells it like it is. When he doubts (or doubted at one time) the single best piece of evidence for an earthly Jesus haha. Let alone the fact that back in the early 2000’s he was a self-proclaimed mythicist. Its just very weird and ironic
Ever since that interview was published I’ve been thinking about when they said essentially that the more you learn about Biblical scholarship the more likely you are to believe Jesus was a real person.
I find it interesting because I can see why they feel like it’s true, as almost everyone they know in academia firmly believes in a historical Jesus while they mostly hear about mythicism from amateurs. But I’m not so sure it’s actually true, and even if it is it’s not for the reason they’re implying.
For one, I don’t think it’s true. The vast majority of people in the Western World (i.e. where biblical studies is prominent) are Christians, who believe in a historical Jesus for religious reasons. And even most non-Christians still believe in a historical Jesus. Mythicists are a tiny minority even outside of academia.
But it also doesn’t describe how Biblical scholars engage this topic. They make it sound like there are loads of mythicists going into Bible studies who then realize the errors of their ways as they learn more. In reality Bible studies classes are filled with Christians who naturally believe Jesus was a real person. I haven’t heard of a single Bible scholar who entered into it as a mythicist only to change their mind because of the evidence. They go in believing in a historical Jesus and come out with the same belief. Ironically the only scholar I’ve heard of who’s said they’ve changed their mind on the topic is Carrier. (The only prominent person I’ve heard change their minds on this in the other direction is Derek from Mythvision, who seems like a smart and knowledgeable guy but is still an amateur.)
This argument doesn’t land once you actually think about it.
I relished your presentations on youtube.
I was excited to look into your work, and excited that perhaps there is a crop of real, scholary mythicists. It would be so cool to have the concensus challenged, and it’s fun to see fun ideas.
Since I’m not a specialist on this topic, I have to factor in credentials to trust that specialists are legitimate. Also, I need to asses their character at least to some small extent in order to trust that they’re delivering their knowledge in an honest way. Unfortunately, you write like a petty asshole. It makes me not trust that you deliver your (undeniably extensive) knowledge to me in a good-faith way.
That’s irrational. To ignore data merely because you emotionally dislike something about its presentation is to act like a child.
Rational people don’t let their emotions interfere with their ability to see and respond to logic and evidence.
But also, you failed to give any examples of what you are emotionally triggered by here. Perhaps you might give an example so we can see if you even have a valid stylistic complaint.
Otherwise, tone policing is an excuse to avoid factual reality, not a legitimate quest for it.
When you start realizing that the consensus is emerging that the Gospels are literary creations (Dom Crossan, Robyn Walsh), mythicism starts making a lot of sense.
You’ll also note — where Carrier agrees with Ehrman, he points that out and I’ve noticed he usually gives the praise. Same with James Tabor. Lots of disagreements going on.
A petty person doesn’t make these acknowledgements.
I enjoy it all. I find there’s a case to be made for mythicism — and say even if there was a historical Jesus, you’ll learn a lot about the context Paul was writing in and the context of Christianity…and that’s the only thing we can be certain of one way or another. (and then its fun to see things get corroborated elsewhere)
Richard,
Do you have any essays on your blog that list and discuss all the many scriptural passages that may have been used as pesher to derive the messiah’s resurrection, even specifically on or after the third day? I searched but didn’t find any comprehensive list. I was thinking how occasionally I hear this talking point popularized by NT Wright, that there’s no way anyone could’ve expected it or derived it from scripture. Ehrman of course as said similar things, gullibly acting like nothing could’ve ever suggested it.
Off the top of my head I’m thinking:
Hosea’s “third day” and Psalm 24 are obvious candidates.
Daniel 8-12; “time, times, and half a time” of tribulation may have been linked to the duration of his death in days.
Ezekiel 37 – valley of dry bones; the messiah as israel’s representative would rise; just as the lost tribes would rise.
Deuteronomy 34:10 – Jason Staples drew my attention to this one, as Paul in Romans 10:4 says the messiah is the end of the torah. And coincidentally at the end of the Torah, in Deuteronomy you have the declaration that a prophet like Moses as not “risen” to this day.
Zech 6 – the one called Rising
The Joseph Narrative?
That’s a good question.
If we split the question into two, where did the atoning dying and rising messiah idea come from and where did the particular specific detail of where the third day came from, then there is an answer to each, but separately, and within larger articles not in articles on their own.
For the third day element I assemble most of the relevant information within:
Why Did Mark Invent an Empty Tomb?
For the dying and rising element, there is a vast academic literature, which I summarize within:
Some Controversial Ideas That Now Have Wide Scholarly Support
(I have a peer reviewed study on that coming out sometime this year. I’ll announce when it’s out.)